1.1 In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves? a) Before carrying specimens through a designated clean area b) Before loading the autoclave c) Before using a restroom d) For cleaning a chemical spill

C:Before using a restroom. You should remove your gloves and wash your hands before using the restroom to prevent transferring laboratory contaminants to yourself. Answer a is incorrect because you must always wear gloves when carrying specimens, even through designated clean areas. However, care should be taken not to touch anything in the clean areas.

1.2 Which of these is a good laboratory safety rule? a) Leave the instrument on when performing repairs b) Use one hand to carry testing samples, not two c)Wait until the end of the shift to clean up any spills d) Wear safety goggles when working with strong chemicals

D: Wear safety goggles when working with strong chemicals.

1.3 Insidious hazards are hazards that: a) are easily overlooked b) happen quickly c) involve chemicals d) involve fumes

A:Are easily overlooked. Insidious hazards are dangers that are not obvious and are therefore easily overlooked and ignored. They are usually not easily seen, tasted, smelled, or felt. Examples of insidious hazards are aerosols, carcinogens, fumes and radiation.

1.4 Which of these liquids is flammable? a) Bleach b) Ethanol c) Nitric acid d) Saline

B: Ethanol.

1.5 Which rating of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires? a) A b) B c) C d) D

B:B. Class B fires involve flammable and combustible liquids such as gasoline, alcohol, and chemicals. Extinguishers with a B rating are designed to extinguish these fires.

1.6 A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: B This fire extinguisher: a) can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases b) requires annual top-ups of type B fuel c) should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals d) uses kerosene to extinguish fires

A:Can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases. This symbol means the fire extinguisher can be used on class B fires, which are fires involving flammable liquids or flammable gases.

1.8 What are the three components of the fire triangle? a) Oxygen, heat, and fuel b) Oxygen, ignition, aud fuel e) Rescue, Alarm, Escape d) Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish

A:Oxygen, heat, and fuel. The fire triangle is the three components a fire needs to sustain itself: oxygen, heat, and fuel. If one of these elements is missing, a fire cannot start or will be extinguished.

1.9 Dry ice is dangerous because it burns, suffocates and: a) can cause a viral Infection b) can cause cancer c) can explode d) catches fire when exposed to air

C: Can explode.

1.10which of these is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)? 1. A fire extinguisher 2. A first aid kit. 3.  hand-washing station 4. Gloves

D:Gloves

1.11Nitrile gloves: 1. are a good substitute for latex gloves 2. are cheaper than latex gloves 3.  are less resistant to punctures than latex gloves 4. are unsuitable for routine laboratory work

A: Are a good substitute for latex gloves.

1.12 Universal precautions are guidelines for handling: a) carcinogens b) chemicals c) flammable liquids di patient bodily fluids.

D: Patient bodily fluids.

1.13 What is post-exposure prophylaxis? a) An auto-immune disease b) The inability to breathe after exposure to an allergen e) The protocol for cleaning a laboratory after the release of a dangerous pathogen d) Treatment after exposure to a pathogen to prevent infection from occurring

D:Treatment after exposure to a pathogen to prevent infection from occurring. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is medication taken after potential exposure to a pathogen. The medication prevents the pathogen from establishing itself in the body and causing infection. Tho most common type of PEP is against HIV.

1.16 The destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, is called: a) disinfection b) eradication c) sanitation d) sterilization

D:Sterilization. Sterilization destroys all forms of life, including spores. Disinfection also destroys microorganisms, but not usually spores.

1.17 A disinfectant disinfectant may become ineffective if: a) it is kept in a dark place b) it is left at room temperature c) it is not diluted properly d) the container is kept tightly scaled during storage

C:It is not diluted properly. Disinfectants are often supplied as concentrated solutions, which need to be diluted to the correct concentration before use. If a disinfectant is not diluted correctly, it may not be effective.

1.18 Which method of sterilization uses steam under pressure? a) Dry heat autoclaving b) Filtration c) Microwaving d) Moist heat autoclaving

D: Moist heat autoclaving.

1.19 Ethanol can NOT kill: a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Salmonella typhosa c) fungi d) spores

D:Spores. Spores are difficult to kill. Methods that normally kill bacteria, such as ethanol, are ineffective at killing them.

1.20 The lab manual says to use a 10% bleach solution to decontaminate the centrifuge. However, no bleach is available. What would be the most suitable alternative? a) 70% ethanol b) Antibacterial soap and water c) Povidone-iodine. d) Sodium bicarbonate

A:70% ethanol. Out of the listed options, 70% ethanol would be the most suitable. Both 10% bleach solution and 70% ethanol are common choices for centrifuge decontamination due to their efficacy and relative safety. Antibacterial soap and water are effective for removing dirt and some bacteria, but they are not considered disinfectants. Povidone-iodine, while a disinfectant, is not recommended for centrifuge decontamination due to potential incompatibility with some materials. Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize acid spills, not for decontamination.

1.21 Class 1 hazardous materials are: a) explosive b) infectious c) poisonous d) radioactive

A: Explosive.

1.22 What worldwide system gives recommendations on how to label hazardous chemicals? a) GHS b) HCS c) HPR d) HazCom

A:GHS. GHS stands for Globally Harmonized System. It is the worldwide set of best practices for classifying and labelling chemicals. The other answers are incorrect. because they are not worldwide; Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) is only used in the United States, and Hazardous Products Regulations (HPR) is only used in Canada. HazCom is only used in the United States.

2.1 Which term means a location towards the front of the body? 1. Anterior 2. Distal 3. Lateral 4. Posterior

A:Anterior. The term that means a location towards the front of the body is anterior. Distal means further away. Lateral refers to the side of the body. Posterior means towards the back of the body.

2.2 Which term means away from the origin? 1. Anterior 2. Distal 3. Lateral 4. Posterior

B: Distal.

2.3Which plane separates the body into left and right? a) Medial b) Oblique c) Sagittal d) Transverse

C:Sagittal. The sagittal plane runs vertically and separates the body into left and right parts.

2.4 What does the prefix olig/o- mean? a) Before b) Few c) Many d) Under

B:Few. Oligo- is a prefix meaning 'few' or 'a low amount of. Examples of words with oligo are oliguria (low urine production) and oligospermia (too few sperm). Prefixes that mean the opposite of oligo- are poly- aud hyper-, which both mean 'many' or 'an excess of. The prefix hypo- means the same as oligo-.

2.5 What does the F stand for in FBS test? a) Fasting b) Fatal c) Final d) First

A:Fasting. An FBS test is a fasting blood sugar test.

2.6 What is edema? a) A bruise on the hend b) A collection of blood outside blood vessels c) Swelling caused by fluid retention d) The final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis

C: Swelling caused by fluid retention.

2.7 Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical clement? a) Calcium b) Mercury c) Potassium d) Sodium

C:Potassium. Hyperkalemia is a condition where potassium levels in the blood are too high.

2.8 What is the major cation found in extracellular fluid? a) Magnesium b) Potassium c) Sodium d) Zinc

C:Sodium. In extracellular fluid, the major cation is sodium and the major anion is chloride.

2.9 From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are: a) chemical, microscopic, cellular tissue, organ, system, organism b) chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism c) organism, chemical, tissue, cellular, organ, system, organelle d) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, organelle, chemical

B:Chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism.

2.10 Which of these is a primary lymphoid organ? a) Bone marrow b) Lymph nodo! c) Peyer's patch d) Spleen

A:Bone marrow. The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow and the thymus. These organs are called the primary lymphoid organs because they generate lymphocytes. Secondary lymphoid organs maintain mature naive lymphocytes and initiate adaptive immune responses. Examples of secondary lymphoid organs are lymph nodes, Peyer's patches, the spleen, and the tonsils.

2.11 The thyroid gland secretes triiodothyronine (T3) and which other hormone? a) Corticosteroid b) Thymosin c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone d) Thyroxine

D:Thyroxine. Thyroxine is also called T4.

2.12 Which gland secretes cortisol? a) Adrenal cortex b) Adrenal medulla c) Pituitary gland d) Testes

A: Adrenal cortex.

2.13 In DNA, which base pairs with adenine? a) Cytosine b) Guanine c) Thymine d) Uracil

C:Thymine. There are four DNA bases: adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine. Cytosine pairs with guanine, and adenine pairs with thymine. Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA.

2.14 Which element is the basis of organic chemistry? a) Carbon b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen

A:Carbon. Four elements - hydrogen, carbon, oxygen and nitrogen are the major components of most organic compounds. However, the basic element of all organic compounds is carbon. Carbon is the main element found in organic compounds. 5 a) fibrinogen Factor I is also known as fibrinogen. Factor V is also known as proaccelerin for labile factor). Factor II is also known as prothrombin. Factor III is also known as tissue thromboplastin. 16 c) myelin sheaths are destroyed Multiple sclerosis (MS) occurs when the immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord. b) Hashimoto's disease Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disorder that results in hypothyroidism. In Hashimoto's disease, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and an inability to produce sufficient thyroid bormones, resulting in hypothyroidism. d) Pre-hepatic In pre-hepatic jaundice, excessive red blood cell breakdown overwhelms the liver's ability to conjugate bilirubin. Since the liver cannot process this excess bilirubin quickly enough, it accumulates in the blood, leading to jaundice. Bepatocellular jaundice is due to liver Damage. Neonatal jaundice occurs in newborns and is due to high bilirubin levels. Post-hepatic jaundice is caused by a blockage in the bile duct. 2.19 u) bilirubin Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced during the normal breakdown of red blood cells.

2.15 Factor I is also known as: a) fibrinogen b) proaccelerin c) prothrombin d) tissue thromboplastin

A:Fibrinogen. Factor I is also known as fibrinogen. Factor V is also known as proaccelerin for labile actor). Factor II is also known as prothrombin. Factor III is also known as tissue thromboplastin.

2.16 Multiple sclerosis occurs when: a) axons do not reach the threshold level b) dendrites cannot receive impulses c) myelin sheaths are destroyed: d) the cellular sheaths are destroyed

C:Myelin sheaths are destroyed. Multiple sclerosis (MS) occurs when the immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord.

2.17 What autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism? a) Celiac disease b) Hashimoto's disease c) Multiple sclerosis d) Myasthenia gravis

B: Hashimoto's disease.

2.18 Which type of jaundice is due to an abnormally high hemolysis rate? a) Hepatocellular b) Neonatal c) Post-hepatic d) Pre-hepatic

D:Pre-hepatic. In pre-hepatic jaundice, excessive red blood cell breakdown overwhelms the liver's ability to conjugate bilirubin. Since the liver cannot process this excess bilirubin quickly enough, it accumulates in the blood, leading to jaundice. Bepatocellular jaundice is due to liver Damage. Neonatal jaundice occurs in newborns and is due to high bilirubin levels. Post-hepatic jaundice is caused by a blockage in the bile duct.

2.19 Jaundice is caused by a buildup of in the blood. a) bilirubin b) hemoglobin c) potassium d) uric acid

A:Bilirubin. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced during the normal breakdown of red blood cells.

2.20 How long does it take for blood to circulate the body? a) 1 minute b) 1 hour c) 1 day d) 1 week

A:1 minute. Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune disorder that results in hypothyroidism. In Hashimoto's disease, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and an inability to produce sufficient thyroid bormones, resulting in hypothyroidism.

2.21 During exercise, blood flow withinja muscle is increased by: a) homogenization b) hyalinization c) precipitation d) vasodilatation

D:Vasodilatation. Vasodilation is the dilatation of blood vessels.

2.22 Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day? a) 8 am וווין 12 (15 c) 4 pu d) 8 pm

A:0.333333333333333. In most people, cortisol levels are highest in the morning when they wake up. Cortisol levels are typically lowest around midnight.

2.23 What are the end products of protein digestion? a) Amino acids b) Patty acids e) Monosaccharides d) Triglycerides

A: Amino acids.

2.24 Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion? a) Glucose b) Lactose c) Maltoso d) Suerase

A:Glucose. The end product of carbohydrate digestion is mainly glucose. Other monosaccharides, such as fructose and galactose, are less common in nature.

2.25 Nerve cells are also called: a) axons b) glial cells e) neuroglial cells d) neurons

D: Neurons.

2.26 What is the function of the respiratory system? a) To make eurynies b) To regulate the endocrine system e) No regulate the heartbeat. d) To supply oxygen to tissue

D: To supply oxygen to tissue.

2.27 What are the smallest blood vessels in the body? a) Arterios b) Capillarios e) Lymph vessels d) Visins

B: Capillaries.

2.28 Which of these is a vein in the arm? a) Femoral b) Jugular c) Mediau cubital d) Radial

C: Median cubital.

2.29 Which type of ancinia is due to excessive red blood cell destruction? a) Aplastic anemia b) Hemolytic anemia. c) Iron-deficiency anemia d) Pernicious anemia

B: Hemolytic anemia.

2.30 Jaundice is the medical term for: a) inflammation b) liver disease c) skin disease d) yellow skin

D: Yellow skin.

2.31 Which of these diseases is a glycogen storage disease? a) Gilbert's syndrome b) Graves' disease c) Legionnaires' disease d) Von Gierke disease

D:Von Gierke disease. Von Gierke disease is the most common glycogen storage disease. This particular disease prevents the liver from properly converting glycogen to glucose. Other.

2.32 Which blood cells protect the body from pathogens and foreign cells? a) Erythrocytes b) Hemoglobin e) Leukocytes d) Platelets

C:Leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, protect the body from infection.

2.33 Red blood cells are primarily composed of: a) albumin b) alpha and beta- globulins c) hemoglobin d) mitochondria

C:Hemoglobin. Red blood cells are composed mainly of hemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen.

2.34 Neutrophils: a) are part of the adaptive immune system b) are part of the innate immune system c) contain hemoglobin d) have no nucleus

B:Are part of the innate immune system. Neutrophils are part of the innate immune system, which is the body's first line of defence against pathogens. Neutrophils capture and destroy invading microorganisms, through methods such as phagocytosis.

2.35 Serum is: a) a liquid that separates out when blood coagulates b) a liquid that separates out when lymph is centrifuged c) plasma with clotting proteins added d) plasma with fibrinogens added

A:A liquid that separates out when blood coagulates. Serum is plasma with clotting proteins removed. To obtain serum, a blood sample is allowed to clot (coagulation) and then the sample is centrifuged to remove the clot and blood cells.

2.36 Both serum and plasma contain: a) clotting factors b) plasma proteins c) platelets d) red blood cells

B:Plasma proteins. Plasma is the liquid part of blood and contains plasma proteins, clotting factors, electrolytes, antibodies, antigens, and hormones. Serum is the same as plasma except serum does not contain clotting factors. Therefore ""plasma proteins"" is the correct answer as plasma proteins are found in both plasma and serum. Answer a is incorrect as clotting factors are only found in plasma, not serum. Answers c and d are incorrect as platelets and red blood cells are found in neither plasma nor serum.

2.37 Plasma is obtained by: a) centrifuging a clotted tube b) using a red stoppered tube c) using a tube containing an anticoagulant. d) using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant

C: Using a tube containing an anticoagulant.

2.38 Which antibody is the most abundant in the body? a) IgA b) IgD c) IgG d) IgM

C:IgG. IgG accounts for 70-75% of all antibodies in the body.

2.39 In which of these situations is a workplace label NOT required? a) A hazardous product is made at the workplace and used in that workplace b) A hazardous product is poured into a container and it is used immediately c) A hazardous product is transferred into another container d) A supplier label becomes lost or illegible

B:A hazardous product is poured into a container and it is used immediately. If the product is intended for immediate use and will not be stored or left unattended, a workplace label is generally not required. This is because the user is assumed to be aware of the hazards associated with the product.

2.40 Which parasite is passed in the feces as a noninfective rhabditiform larva? a) Dipylidium canimum b) Hymenolepis nana c) Schistosoma mansoni d) Strongyloides stercoralis

D: Strongyloides stercoralis.

2.41 A test requires whole blood. Therefore the blood must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n): a) anticoagulant. b) antiglycolytic agent. c) clot activator d) serum separating gel

A:Anticoagulant. Whole blood naturally clots when it comes out of the body. If a test requires whole blood, then an anticoagulant is needed to stop the blood from clotting, or else the clot would interfere with these results.

2.42 Blood specimens for which test are placed in circles on special filter paper? a) Bilirubin b) Complete blood counts c) Malaria d) Phenylketonuria

D:Phenylketonuria. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is the abnormal build-up in the body of a protein called phenylalanine. Specimens are placed on filter paper before analysis.

2.43 Blood samples for complete blood counts are collected in vacutainers containing which anticoagulant? a) EDTA b) Heparin c) Sodium citrate d) Sodium fluoride

A:EDTA. EDTA is the preferred anticoagulant for cell counts. This is because it is the best. anticoagulant for preserving cells. Heparin is not recommended as an anticoagulant for cell counts because leukocytes and thrombocytes clump in heparin, which invalidates counts. Citrate is not recommended due to the dilution of the blood by the liquid citrate. Sodium fluoride is not an anticoagulant; it is a preservative for glucose.

2.44 What is a deficiency of hemoglobin pr red blood cells called? a) Anemia b) Hemoglobin c) Hemophilia d) Leukemia

A: Anemia.

2.45 Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a: a) ESR b) FBS c) Hgb d) PT

D:PT. PT stands for prothrombin time and is a measurement of how long blood takes to clot.

2.46 Physiological saline is prepared by mixing: a) distilled water and hypochlorite distilled water and seawater c) distilled water and sodium chloride d) tap water and hypochlorite

C: Distilled water and sodium chloride.

2.47 What colour vacutainer tube is used to collect blood for blood banking? a) Black b) Green c) Grey d) Pink

D:Pink. Pink-top tubes contain EDTA as an anticoagulant and are preferred for blood banking.

2.48 A physician requests a vitamin A test and a complete blood count. Which vacutainer tubes should the phlebotomist use to collect the blood samples for these tests? a) Gold and lavender b) Grey and gold c) Grey and lavender d) Grey and light blue

A:Gold and lavender. Vitamin A tests require gold tubes (also known as serum-separating tubes). These tubes contain silica particles to activate clotting and a serum separating gel that forms a barrier between the clotted blood cells and the plasma. The sample can then be centrifuged and the separated and serum easily removed. Gold tubes are used for many vitamin tests as well as other biochemistry tests. Complete blood counts require lavender tubes. These tubes contain EDTA which prevents blood from clotting, which is important in complete blood counts.

2.49 A phlebotomist has to collect a purple top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from the same patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes? a) Green, light blue, purple b) Green, purple, light blue c) Light blue, green, purple d) Purple, green, light blue

C:Light blue, green, purple. The light blue top tube has a defined amount of sodium citrate, so it inust be taken before other tubes containing additives. Purple tubes should be taken after green tubes. This is because purple tubes contain EDTA, which is high in potassium. If EDTA contaminates the green top tube, it could make the patient's potassium levels seem higher than they are.

2.50 What anticoagulant is in a green top vacutainer? a) Citrate b) EDTA c) Fluoride d) Heparin

D: Heparin.

2.51 A phlebotomist needs to collect blood samples from a patient for a blood glucose test and a hemoglobin test. What colour tubes should the phle- botomist use? a) Grey and green b) Grey and lavender c) Grey and red d) Red and green

B:Grey and lavender. Grey-top tubes are used for glucose tests. Lavender-top tubes are used for hemoglobin tests.

2.52 Which anticoagulant tube is needed to collect a sample for an HbA1c test.? a) EDTA b) Heparin c) Sodium citrate d) Sodium fluoride

A:EDTA. The HbA1c test measures the average blood glucose levels over a period of several weeks. An anticoagulant tube containing EDTA is used to collect a blood sample for the HbA1c test because EDTA prevents clotting and preserves the blood sample for accurate HbA1c measurement.

2.53 What tube is used to collect plasma for stat chemistry specimens? a) Green b) Light blue c) Red d) Yellow

A: Green.

2.54 For which tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical? a) Green top b) Lavender top c) Light blue top d) Red top

C:Light blue top. The tube most sensitive to underfilling is the sodium citrate tube (blue top) used for coagulation studies. Underfilled citrate tubes will give falsely lengthened coagulation results and can result in the physician reducing the patient's anticoagulant dosage to a degree that risks serious complications, including blood clots and stroke.

2.55 Which of these tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium? a) Green top b) Light blue top c) PST d) Red top

B:Light blue top. Light blue top tubes contain sodium citrate, an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium. Greeu top tubes (also known as PST) contain sodium heparin as an anticoagulant, which works by binding to antithrombin III. Red top tubes do not contain an anticoagulant.

2.56 Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube? a) Green bi Light blue e) PST d) Red

D:Red. Serum is the liquid after blood has clotted. Therefore, to obtain a serum specimen, you must collect the blood sample in a tube that does not contain anticoagulants, so the blood can clot. Only a few vacutainers do not contain anticoagulants. Among these is the red-topped tube, which contains no anticoagulants or preservatives. When the blood sample makes contact with the surface of the tube, the coagulation cascade becomes activated, causing a clot to form. The blood is allowed to clot for 10 to 15 minutes before subjecting to centrifugation to separate the clot from the serum further.

2.57A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red, green, light blue, and purple. Which should the phlebotomist fill first? a) Blood culture bottle b) Light blue top tube e) Purple top tube d) Red top tube

A:Blood culture bottle. Blood culture bottles are always filled first since they need to be kept sterile. The purple top tube would be filled last because it contains EDTA, which can contaminate the other tubes.

2.58 Which is the best anticoagulant for a bone marrow aspirate to be sent for a cytogenetic study? a) 3.2% tri-sodium citrate b) EDTA c) Sodium fluoride d) Sodium heparin

D:Sodium heparin. Bone marrow aspirate for cytogenic study should be collected in a green top (sodium heparin) tube. EDTA is the preferred anticoagulant for bone marrow aspirates sent for molecular study, not cytogenic study.

2.59 Blood for a white blood cell count. would generally be collected in which colour vacutainer? a) Black b) Blue c) Grey d) Lavender

D:Lavender. Blood for a white blood cell count (WBC) is typically collected in a lavender/purple vacutainer tube. This type of tube contains the anticoagulant EDTA, which prevents blood from clotting and preserves the integrity of the blood cells. EDTA is the anticoagulant of choice for WBC counts because it does not affect the morphology or staining properties of the cells, making them casier to identify and count accurately.

2.60 Which of these tubes contains EDTA? a) Gray b) Lavender c) Light blue d) Light green

B:Lavender. Lavender tubes contain EDTA as an anticoagulant. Royal (dark) blue and pink tubes can also contain EDTA.

2.61 EDTA prevents blood clots by binding: a) calcium b) chloride c) plasma d) red blood cells

A:Calcium. EDTA binds with the calcium ions in the blood, preventing the blood from clotting.

2.62 Which of these additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis? a) EDTA b) Silica c) Sodium fluoride d) Thixotropic gel

D: Thixotropic gel.

2.63 Which vacutainer tube has a light yellow top? a) PST b) SPS c) SST d) Sodium heparin

B:SPS. Tubes with yellow or light yellow tops are SPS tubes. They contain the additive sodium polyanethole sulfonate (SPS). These tubes are used for blood bank studies, human leukocyte antigen (HLA) phenotyping, DNA, and paternity testing. PST (plasma separator tubes) have green tops. SST (serum separator tubes) have gold tops. These are sometimes confused for yellow tops.

2.64 When a doctor orders a complete blood count, the phlebotomist should draw: a) one EDTA tube b) one heparin tube c) several SST tubes d) several citrate tubes

A:One EDTA tube. The anticoagulant needed for a complete blood count is EDTA.

2.65 What can happen if a phlebotomist uses an angle of 35 degrees when performing venipuncture? a) Nothing will happen as this is the correct angle b) The needle may go completely through the vein c) The needle may miss the vein completely d) The needle will enter above the vein

B:The needle may go completely through the vein. An angle of 35 degrees is too steep and the needle may go completely through the vein. It's best to use an angle of 15 to 30 degrees instead.

2.66 You puncture a patient's finger for a finger stick blood test but no blood comes out. What should you do? a) Cool the finger using an ice pack b) Puncture the site again c) Scrape the puncture site against the test strip d) Squeeze the finger

D:Squeeze the finger. In this situation, you should gently squeeze the patient's finger to encourage blood to flow. Cooling the finger would be counter-productive because it would decrease blood flow instead of encouraging it. Puncturing the same site again would be painful for the patient and may damage their finger. Scraping the test strip against the puncture site could contaminate the sample with tissue fluid or clotted blood.

2.67 You need to draw a blood sample from a patient with an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in one arm and an IV in his other arm. From where should you draw the blood sample? a) Above the IV b) Below the IV c) Above the AV fistula d) Below the AV fistula

B:Below the IV. Arms containing an IV should not be used to draw blood specimens if it can be avoided because the IV fluid may dilute the blood, which can affect the results. However, if there is no alternative, it is best to choose a site below the IV. The patient's nurse should shut off the IV for at least two minutes before the venipuncture. Never draw from a site above an IV or from the IV itself because the IV fluid will dilute the blood and affect the results. You should also never draw blood from an arm that has an AV fistula because this will increase the risk of damage to the fistula and could cause infection or clotting.

2.68 What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies? a) 1 mm b) 2 mm c) 3 mm d) 4 mm

B:2 mm. On a baby's foot, the distance from the skin surface to the bone is only around 3 mun. Therefore, using a lancet longer than 2 mm risks hitting bone.

2.69 Which of these statements about venipuncture is true? a) After collecting the blood, remove the needle first, then the tourniquet b) Do not leave the tourniquet on for more than 1 minute c) Enter the vein at a 50-degree angle d) The bevel of the needle should be pointing down when the needle enters the vein

B: Do not leave the tourniquet on for more than 1 minute.

2.70 When drawing a patient's blood, which of these steps should come first.? a) Apply the tourniquet b) Clean the site e) Identify the patient. d) Insert the needle

C:Identify the patient. Before drawing the patient's blood, you should first make sure you have the right patient.

2.71 Why must a phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture? a) To allow blood flow to the area b) To cause the veins to be more prominent c) To decrease circulation in the arteries d) To remove microorganisms from the puncture site

D: To remove microorganisms from the puncture site.

2.72 Venipuncture needles are colour-coded according to their: a) expiration date b) gauge c) length d) manufacturer

B: Gauge.

2.73 Which of these is needed to collect blood by syringe? a) Multisample needle b) Transfer device c) Tube holder d) Winged infusion set

B:Transfer device. Syringes are used to collect blood from patients with small or fragile veins. Blood collected in syringes is then transferred into the appropriate tubes using a blood transfer device. Multi-sample needles are needles for collecting blood several samples with a single puncture.

2.74 Which of these needles has the largest diameter? a) 18 gauge b) 19 gauge c) 20 gauge d) 21 gauge

A:18 gauge. The smaller the needle gauge, the larger the diameter.

2.75 When should you label a blood collection tube? a) As soon as you receive the test order b) Just before the patient arrives c) Before you collect the specimen d) After you collect the specimen

D:After you collect the specimen. The best time to label a specimen. is immediately after collection, in the presence of the patient. This helps to ensure accurate patient specimen identification. You should never label a blood collection tube before collecting the specimen because this could result in a mislabeled specimen.

2.76 When should a ""stat"" glucose test be performed? a) 2 hours after the last meal b) Immediately c) Within 1 hour d) Within 4 hours

B:Immediately. All requisitions marked ""stat"" should be performed immediately.

2.77 Specimens submitted with a requisition on which the identifying information does not exactly match are called __________ specimens. a) miscounted b) mismatched c) mismated d) misplaced

B: Mismatched.

2.78 For venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied the needle insertion point. a) 1-2 inches above b) 1-2 inches below c) 3-4 inches above d) 3-4 inches below

C: 3-4 inches above.

2.79 Repeated phlebotomy procedures in the same area can cause: a) petechine b) scarring c) thrombosis d) varicose veins

B:Scarring. When venipunctures are repeated in the same area, scar tissue (sclerosing) can develop. Petechiae are small red spots caused by bleeding disorders or from leaving a tourniquet on too long. They are not caused by repeated phlebotomy procedures. Although thrombosis may be produced in a sclerosed vein, it is not a typical result of venipuncture. Venipuncture does not cause varicose veins.

2.80 The sweat test measures the amount of in sweat. a) chloride b) copper c) lend d) phosphatase

A:Chloride. The sweat test. measures the amount of chloride in the blood. It is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis because people with cystic fibrosis have high levels of chloride in their sweat.

2.81 What area should you swab to obtain a throat culture? a) Larynx b) Oral mucosa c) Pharynx d) Trachea

C:Pharynx. To obtain a specimen for a throat culture, you should swab the tonsillar arca (pharynx) with a sterile cotton swab applicator.

2.82 Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true? a) It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol b) The first drop of blood is the best to use c) The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough d) The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations

D: The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations.

2.83 Capillary samples are generally taken from which part of the body? a) Arm b) Finger c) Stomach d) Toe

B: Finger.

2.84 Patients should avoid foods high in serotonin such as avocados, bananas, and pineapple before taking which test? a) 5-HIAA urine test b) 72-hour fecal fat test c) Lipid profile d) Stool culture and sensitivity

A:5-HIAA urine test. Serotonin is the precursor to 5-HIAA. Foods containing serotonin should be avoided before and during the 5-HIAA urine test because they can falsely elevate the results.

2.85 When used for detecting urinary tract infections, urine dipsticks test for: a) uitrates b) nitrites c) phosphates d) sugars

B:Nitrites. Nitrites in urine indicate an infection because many bacteria reduce nitrates in urine to nitrites. For this reason, urine is tested for nitrites to detect urinary tract infections.

2.86 Which tablet is used to detect proteins in urine? a) Acetest b) Clinitest c) Ictotest d) SSA

D:SSA. Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) is a test that detects proteins in urine.

2.87 Lactose tolerance testing: a) can diagnose a patient's inability to digest milk sugar b) requires a urine sample c) requires blood samples to be taken over 24 hours d) requires the patient to drink a liquid containing glucose

A:Can diagnose a patient's inability to digest milk sugar. In a lactose tolerance test, the patient is given a drink of lactose solution. Then, their blood is tested to see how much glucose it contains. If the patient is lactose intolerant, then their blood sugar levels will either rise slowly or not at all. This is because their body is unable to break down the lactose into glucose. 88 b) Cary-Blair media Cary-Blair media is a transport medium used to collect and transport stool samples. The medium contains ingredients that help preserve the viability of bacteria in the stool sample during transport to the laboratory. d) Wrap the sample in aluminum foil Sperm are sensitive to cold and heat. The best temperature to keep somen is room temperature. Wrapping a semen sample in aluminum foil helps to keep the sample at room temperature. Since cold and heat can damage sperm, ice, hot water bottles, and refrigerators should be avoided. 190 b) Miscellaneous The label is for Category 9 hazards, which are miscellaneous hazards.

2.88 Which of these media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens? n) Blood agar b) Cary-Blair media c) Lowenstein-Jensen agar d) MacConkey agar

B:Cary-Blair media  Cary-Blair media is a transport medium used to collect and transport stool samples. The medium contains ingredients that help preserve the viability of bacteria in the stool sample during transport to the laboratory. 

2.89 Which of these is an appropriate way for a patient to protect a semen sample between collection and testing? a) Keep the sample on ice b) Refrigerate the sample c) Use a hot water bottle to keep the sample warm

D:Wrap the sample in aluminum foil  Sperm are sensitive to cold and heat. The best temperature to keep somen is room temperature. Wrapping a semen sample in aluminum foil helps to keep the sample at room temperature. Since cold and heat can damage sperm, ice, hot water bottles, and refrigerators should be avoided. 

2.90 Which category of hazardous goods does the following label apply to? <<photo of a diamond shaped label with stripes on the top half and a number 9>> a) Corrosive b) MiscellaneNIS c) Oxidizing d) Toxic

B:Miscellaneous  The label is for Category 9 hazards, which are miscellaneous hazards. 

2.91 What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for? a) Target channel adapter b) Trichloroacetic acid c) Trichloroethane d) Tricyclic antidepressant

D:Tricyclic antidepressant. The TCA urine test checks for the presence of tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) in a urine sample. 292 a) A genetic defect in metabolism A PKU test is a blood test given to newborns. PKU stands for phenylketonuria, which is a rare disorder that prevents the body from properly breaking down phenylalanine.

2.92 What does the PKU test detect? a) A genetic defect in metabolism b) A sex-linked anania e) A viral disease d) Severe kidney disease

A:A genetic defect in metabolism  A PKU test is a blood test given to newborns. PKU stands for phenylketonuria, which is a rare disorder that prevents the body from properly breaking down phenylalanine. 

2.93 Creatinine clearance tests check the health of which organ? a) Heart b) Kidney e) Liver d) Stomach

B:Kidney. The creatinine clearance test checks how well the kidneys work.

3.1 What item of lab equipment. is a suction device used to draw up liquids? a) Beaker b) Erlenmeyer cylinder c) Graduated cylinder d) Safety bulb

D: Safety bulb.

3.2 Which durable material is used to make heat-resistant glassware? a) Borosilicate b) Polyethylene c) Polystyrene d) Soda-lime

A:Borosilicate. Borosilicate glass is a durable material that is commonly used to make heat-resistant glassware in laboratory settings. Borosilicate glass contains boron trioxide, which gives the glass a low coefficient of thermal expansion, making it resistant to thermal shock. This means that. borosilicate glassware can withstand suddon changes in temperature without cracking or breaking.

3.3 What does the term 'gross examination of tissue' mean? a) Cutting tissue into very thin sections b) Examination of dead or decaying tissue c) Examination of tissue with a microscope d) Examination of tissue with the naked eye

D: Examination of tissue with the naked eye.

3.4 Which of these is a fixative? a) Cytospray b) Giemsa c) Hematoxylin d) Wright's stain

A:Cytospray. Out of the options, only Cytospray is a fixative. Tho rest. are stains.

3.5 What is the term for formaldehyde dissolved in water? a) Acetone b) Cytospray c) Ethyl acetate d) Formalin

D:Formalin. Formaldehyde dissolved in water is commonly referred to as formalin. Formalin is a commonly used fixative for preserving biological tissues.

3.6 Which ethanol strength is used last when dehydrating tissues? a) 70% b) 80% c) 90% d) 100%

D:100%. Dehydration is carried out by immersing specimens in a series of ethanol solutions of increasing concentration. A typical sequence is: 1. 70% ethanol for 15 minutes, then 2. 90% ethanol for 15 minutes, then 3. 100% ethanol for 15 minutes, then 4. 100% ethanol for 15 minutes again, then 5. 100% ethanol for 30 minutes, then 6. 100% ethanol for 45 minutes.

3.7 Which of these stains is a Romanowsky stain? a) Gram b) Jefferson c) Leishman d) Sudan

C:Leishman. Romanowsky stains include Giemsa, Jenner, Wright, Field, May-Grünwald and Leishman stains.

3.8 Van Gieson's stain is a mixture of picric acid and: a) acid fuchsin b) methylene blue. c) thionine d) toluidiuc blue

A:Acid fuchsin. Van Gieson's stain is a mixture of picric acid and acid fuchsin, with acid fuchsin selectively staining collagen and osteoid tissue red and the picric acid component staining muscle, elastin, fibrin and cytoplasm yellow.

3.9 Which of these is a common ripening agent for hematoxylin? a) Hydrochloric acid b) Iron c) Sodium iodate d) Tungsten

C:Sodium iodate. Hematoxylin itself is not a dye, and it must be oxidised to hematein, which is a dye, before it can be used. This process is called ripening and can be accomplished in two ways: naturally or chemically. The most commonly used chemical oxidising agent is sodium iodate.

3.10 The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple or black? a) Cytoplasm b) Golgi apparatus c) Mitochondria d) Nuclei

D:Nuclei. The Pap stain will stain cell nuclei a blue, purple or black colour. ""Cytoplasm"" is incorrect. The Pap stain stains cytoplasms blue-green or pink.

3.11 Hematoxylin ripens into: a) hemmtein b) hematone c) hematurgy d) hemoglobin

A:Hematein. Hematoxylin is a dye commonly used in histology to stain the nuclei of cells. When used as a stain, hematoxylin gradually changes colour over time, a process called ""ripening."" During the ripening process, homatoxylin forms a darker-coloured compound called hematein. Hematoin is responsible for the blue or purple colour of nuclei that are stained with hematoxylin.

3.12 What colour is Eosin? a) Blue b) Green c) Pink d) Yellow

C:Pink. Eosin is a pink dye used in histology.

3.13 Which two stains are routinely used in Pap stains? a) Hematoxylin and eosin b) Methenamine silver and mucicarmine c) Periodic acid-Schiff-diastase and azur d) Perl's Prussian blue and mucicarmine

A:Hematoxylin and eosin. The Pap stain is a combination of a nuclear stain (hematoxylin) and two counterstains. The first counterstain is eosin and the second counterstain is Orange G or Light Green.

3.14 What is the ratio of cosin to methylene blue in cosin methylene blue? a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 3:1 d) 6:1

D:0.250694444444444. Eosin methylene blue is made in a ratio of 6 parts cosin and 1 part methylene blue.

3.15 In which stage of histology are mordants used? a) Decalcification b) Fixation c) Sectioning d) Staining

D:Staining. Mordants are chemicals that are used in some staining techniques to enhance or modify the staining properties of certain dyes. Mordants can help to increase the affinity of dyes for specific cellular components, such as nuclear chromatin, and improve the clarity and intensity of staining.

3.16 What is the decolourizing agent in the Zielil Neelsen stain? a) Absolute alcohol b) Acetone c) Acid alcohol d) Xylol Which of these would slow the growth of pathogenic bacteria?

C:Acid alcohol. The decolourizing agent in the Ziehl-Neelsen stain is acid-alcohol. The acid-alcohol removes the primary stain from non-acid-fast bacteria, leaving them colorless or lightly stained, while the acid-fast bacteria retain the red colour of the primary stain.

3.17 Which of these would slow the growth of pathogenic bacteria?  a) A moist environment b) An acidic pH c) Darkness d) Nutrients

B:An acidic pH. Most bacteria grow best around neutra pH values (6.5 - 7.0).

3.18 Why are specimens for anaerobic culture placed in anaerobic jars? a) To maximize spore formation b) To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen To minimize the exposure of the specimen to UV light d) To stop the specimen from escaping MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their: a) ability to ferment lactose

B: To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen.

3.19 MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their: a) ability to ferment lactose b) ability to hydrolyze starch c) ability to utilise the safranin dye d) hemolytic activity

A:Ability to ferment lactose. MacConkey agar is a selective and differentiating agar that only grows gram-negative bacterial species. It ca further differentiate the gram-negative organisms based on their ability to ferment lactose.

3.20 Löwenstein-Jensen media is used to isolate which type of bacteria? a) Escherichia b) Haemophilus c) Listeria d) Mycobacteria

D:Mycobacteria. Löwenstein-Jensen media is a selective egg-based medium specifically used to cultivate and isolate Mycobacteria.

3.21 What are the three common types of acid-fast staining? a) Calcofluor, fast green, and Gram-Twort b) Periodic acid-Schiff, alcian, and Bismarck e) Trichrome, sulfate, and Wade-Fite d) Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyoun, and auramine-rhodamine

D:Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyo, and auramine-rhodamine. The three types of acid-fast staining are the Ziehl-Neelsen method, the Kinyo method, and the Auramine-Rhodami Fluorochrome procedure (also known as the Truant method). The Ziehl-Nect method and the Kinyoun method are together known as carbolfuchsin staig methods.

3.22 For how many minutes should a microhematocrit be centrifuged? a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 15

C:5. Microhematocrits are centrifuged at a rate of 11,000 to 12,000 rpm for 4 to 5 mninutes.

3.23 When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin? a) A small drop size b) Holding the spreader at a high angle c) Spreading the blood too slowly d) Using transfused blood

A:A small drop size. Thin blood films are caused by using small drop of blood, by spreading too quickly, or by holding the spreader # low angle.

3.24 Which colour vacutainer tube contains sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)? a) Green b) Pink c) Purple d) Yellow

D:Yellow. Yellow top tubes are also known as SPS tubes because they contain sodium polynnethol sulfonate.

3.25 Which of these vacutainer tubes does NOT contain additives? a) Pink b) Red (glass) c) Red (plastic) d) SST

B:Red (glass). Red-top glass tubes are plain glass tubes containing no clot activators, anticoagulants, preservatives or separator material. These tubes can be used for Blood Bank tests. Pink-top tubes contain EDTA as an anticoagulant, while red plastic tubes contain no anticoagulants, preservatives, or separator material, they do contain a clot activator. SST (gold-top) tubes contain a clot activator and serum gel separator.

3.26 What additive is added to blood samples to prevent the breakdown of glucose? a) EDTA b) Heparin c) Potassium oxalate d) Sodium fluoride

D: Sodium fluoride.

3.27 Which specimen is used for coagulation testing? a) Plasma b) Serum c) Urine d) Whole blood

A: Plasma.

3.28 What is the purpose of activated charcoal in transport media? a) To absorb toxic substances b) To kill non-pathogens c) To maintain a neutral pH d) To prevent the overgrowth of extraneous organisms

A:To absorb toxic substances. Activated charcoal is a highly porous material with a large surface area, which can absorb various chemicals and toxins. Therefore, the addition of activated charcoal to a transport medium can help to neutralize any toxins in the sample.

4.1 What is the dilution factor 1/5 expressed as a dilution ratio? a) 1:4 b) 1:5 c) 1:6 d) 5:1

A:0.0444444444444444. A 1/5 dilution factor means the final volume of the solution is 5 times the volume of the solute. To create a 1/5 dilution, you would add 4 parts of solvent (usually water) to 1 part of solute. This results in a total volume of 5 parts. The dilution ratio 1:4 means 1 part solute to 4 parts solvent. Therefore both a 1/5 dilution factor and a 1:4 dilution ratio lead to the same solution: a solution with 1 part solute to 4 parts solvent.

4.2 How many millilitres of 5% hydrochloric acid are needed to make 500 mL of 2% hydrochloric acid? a) 100 mL b) 200 mL c) 300 mL d) 400 mL

B:200 mL, using the c1v1 = c2v2 formula.

4.3 How do you prepare 400 mL of a 1% v/v acetic acid solution? a) 1 mL of glacial acetic acid in 399 mL of water b) 1 mL of glacial acetic acid in 400 mL of water c) 4 mL of glacial acetic acid in 396 mL of water d) 4 mL of glacial acetic acid in 400 mL of water

C:4 mL of glacial acetic acid in 396 mL of water. 1% v/v means there is 1 mL of solute for every 99 mL of solvent.. To make 400 mL of 1% v/v acetic acid solution, you take 4 ml (1% of 400 mL) of glacial acetic acid and then bring to 400 ml by adding 396 mL of water.

4.4 Which of these statements about reactive chemicals is false? a) Always add water to acid b) Oxidizers are stored separately from reducers c) Reactive chemicals include picric acid and sodium azide d) Some reactive chemicals may react with water

A:Always add water to acid. Always add acid to water, and never the reverse. This is because adding water to acid can make the splatter solution violently, causing acid burns to your skin or eyes.

4.5 What is the best way to clean glassware containing water-insoluble solutions? a) Rinse 2-3 times with ethanol then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water b) Rinse 3-4 times with deionized water c) Riuse with copious amounts of tap water then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water d) Wash with hot soapy water, rinse thoroughly with tap water, and then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water

A:Rinse 2-3 times with ethanol then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water. Water alone cannot. remove water-insoluble solutions from glassware. For this reason, the glassware first needs to be rinsed with a solvent such as acetone or ethanol.

4.6 Wrapped articles must be allowed to dry before removing them from the autoclave. This is because packs that are wet will: a) cause inaccurate results on the sterilization indicator b) draw microorganisms into the pack c) rust metal instruments d) tear the wrapper

B: Draw microorganisms into the pack.

4.7 Which of these can NOT be autoclaved? a) Gloves b) Microbial growth media c) Organic solvents d) Stainless steel

C:Organic solvents. Organic solvents, such as alcohol, acetone, benzene, and toluene, cannot be autoclaved. They are volatile and/or flammable. Therefore, they could catch fire in the autoclave. Other things that cannot be autoclaved are acids, bases, chlorides, sulphates, chlorine, hypochlorite, bleach, non-stainless steel, and some plastics, including polystyrene, polyethylene, and polyurethane.

4.8 At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes? a) 100°C b) 121°C c) 140°C d) 160°C

D:160°C. Hot air ovens can sterilize in 30 minutes at 170°C, 60 minutes at 160°C, and 150 minutes at 150°C.

4.9 Which of these reagents contains mercuric chloride? a) Bouin's fluid b) Crystal violet c) Picric acid d) Zenker's fluid

D:Zenker's fluid. Zenker's fluid is usually made with water, mercuric chloride, potassium dichromate, and sodium sulphate.

4.10 Which of these is a decalcification agent? a) Ammonia b) EDTA c) Toluene d) Xylene

B:EDTA. Decalcification agents remove calcium from tissues to prepare them for histological processing. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is one of the most common decalcification agents. Others are formic acid, nitric acid, hydrochloric acid, trichloroacetic acid, acetic acid, citric acid, sodium citrate, tartaric acid, and picric acid. Generally, decalcification reagents are acids. Xylene and toluene are used as clearing agents, not decalcification agents.

4.11 The two electrodes of a pH meter are called the electrodes. a) capacitive and potentiated b) dry and wet. c) glass and reference d) scaled and ground

C:Glass and reference. Two electrodes are involved in the measurement of pH: the glass electrode and the reference electrode.

5.1 The tendency of teams to lose their critical evaluative capabilities during decision-making is a phenomenon called: a) decision congruence b) group consensus c) groupthink d) the slippage effect

C: Groupthink.

5.2 Which of these is a formal way to end an email? a) Bye for now b) See you soon c) Thanks d) Yours sincerely

D: Yours sincerely.

5.3 A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a young boy. The boy's mother is in the room and she says she doesn't like the sight of blood. She looks pale and says she feels faint. The phlebotomist should: a) ignore the mother as the focus should be on the child b) offer the mother a chair to sit in c) take the child's blood as quickly as possible to get it over with d) tell the mother not to worry

B: Offer the mother a chair to sit in.

5.4 What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture? a) Continue the procedure until all blood is collected b) Leave the noodle in the vein and call the physician c) Remove the needle and attend to the patient d) Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious

C: Remove the needle and attend to the patient.

6.1 QNS stands for: a) quality not satisfied b) quality not sufficient c) quantity not satisfied d) quantity not sufficient

D: Quantity not sufficient.

6.2 Which of these is a quantitative result? a) A moderate amount of crystals seen b) A moderate number of bacteria present c) Specific gravity = 1.010 d) Urine is brown

C:Specific gravity= 1.010. Quantitative results are expressed as numbers.

6.3 The middle value in a sorted data set is called the: a) average b) coefficient of variation c) mean d) median

D:Median. The median is the middle number in a sorted list of numbers. For example, if a data set contains the values 1, 2, 3, 4 and 4, then the mode is 3 because 3 is the middle number.

6.4 Precision indicatos the: a) closeness of a result to the first standard deviation b) closeness of a result to the median value c) closoness of a result to the true value d) repeatability or reproducibility of a procedure

D:Repeatability or reproducibility of a procedure. Precision indicates how close results are to one another when a procedure is tested repeatedly. In other words, precision indicates the repeatability of a procedure. The closeness of results to the true value is accuracy, not precision.

6.5 The ABC analysis categorizes inventory itoms by their: a) expiry date b) importance c) location d) size

B:Importance. The ABC analysis categorizes inventory items by their importance. This analysis divides inventory into three categories: A items, which are the most important B items, which are of moderate importance C items, which are the least important.

6.6 PPE, biosafety cabinets, and fire extinguishers are examples of which risk response strategy? a) Accept b) Avoid c) Mitigate d) Transfer

C:Mitigate. PPE, biosafety cabinets, and fire extinguishers are all examples of the mitigation strategy, which is a strategy that tries to reduce the likelihood or severity of risks. Fire extinguishers, for example, provide a means to control and suppress small fires before they escalate.

7.1 What is a regulated profession? a) A profession that has no legal requirement or restriction on practice b) A profession that requires a specific professional qualification c) A profession that requires work experience d) A profession where workers work regular, 9-5 hours

B: A profession that requires a specific professional qualification.

7.2 Which of these actions helps to ensure patient confidentiality? a) Discarding old records by throwing them into the trash b) Giving out patient information to journalists c) Sending confidential material via e-mail d) Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data

D: . Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data.

7.3 The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information unless authorized by law or the patient is known as: a) accountability b) confidentiality c) privacy d) security

B:Confidentiality. Patient confidentiality requires medical information to be kept confidential unless authorized by the patient or when mandated by law.

7.4 Beneficence is the duty to: a) do good b) do no harm c) follow the law d) fully inform the patient

A:Do good. Beneficence means that all medical practitioners have a moral duty to promote the course of action that they believe is in the best interests of the patient.

7.5 What does non-maleficence mean in medical ethics? a) Allowing the patient to choose their own treatment b) Giving the best treatment possible to the patient c) Making the patient aware of the potential risks of undergoing treatment d) The duty to not harm the patient

D:The duty to not harm the patient. The principle of non-maleficence in healthcare incans medical practitioners must not harm patients.

7.6 What is the autonomy pillar of medical ethics? a)The duty to do good b) The duty to not harm the patient c) The respect for the patient's right to self-determination d) The treatment of all people equally and equitably

C: The respect for the patient's right to self-determination.

7.7 A priest is with the patient when you arrive to collect a STAT specimen. What should you do? a) Draw blood from a different patient and then check back b) Excuse yourself and ask for permission to draw the specimen c) Go back to the lab and draw the specimen on the next sweep d) Wait outside the room for a few minutes

B:Excuse yourself and ask for permission to draw the specimen. Normally, if a member of the clergy is with a patient, then you shouldn't. interrupt. However, STAT specimens must be drawn immediately and therefore they take priority over the clergy member.

7.8 What is Canada's federal data privacy law for private-sector organizations? a) HIPPA b) PHIPA c) PIPEDA d) WHMIS

C:PIPEDA. PIPEDA is the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act, a Canadian law that sets out the rules for how businesses must handle personal information in the course of their commercial activity. HIPPA is the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, which is United States privacy law. PHIPA is the Personal Health Information Protection Act, which is a privacy law in Ontario. WIIMIS is the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System, Camuda's system for dealing with dangerous materials in the workplace.

7.9 Which principle of the Canada Health Act states that all residents must have access to the same level of health care, regardless of their ability to pay? a) Accessibility b) Portability c) Public administration d) Universality

D:Universality. The principle of universality states that all residents of a province or territory are entitled to healthcare coverage, regardless of their income, age, or health status. It helps to ensure that no individual is excluded from receiving healthcare due to financial or other barriers.

7.10 What is the national certifying body for medical laboratory assistants in Canada? a) CMLTO b) CSMLS c) MLAT d) OSMT

B:CSMLS. Canada's certifying body for MLTS and MLAs is the Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science (CSMLS). The CSMLS administers exams across Canada and awards certificates to passing candidates.

8.1 Which of these is an example of critical thinking? a) Coming to your own conclusion after evaluating the evidence of a research study b) Implementing the first solution identified to a problem c) Listening to what a patient tells you d) Reading the instruction manual of an autoclave

A:Coming to your own conclusion after evaluating the evidence of a research study. Critical thinking entails not only acquiring information but also analyzing it.

8.2 Which of these is NOT involved in critical thinking? a) Evaluating your own biases b) Questioning c) Snap judgments d) Value judgments

C:Snap judgments. Snap judgements are where someone makes a hurried decision without investigating further.

8.3 Critical thinking can be defined as: a) accepting what people tell you is the truth b) analyzing and evaluating information to make decisions c) gathering as much information as possible d) making gradual improvements in understanding a topic

B: Analyzing and evaluating information to make decisions.

8.4 A lab assistant is wrapping an instrument. for autoclaving but discovers the wrapper has a hole. What should the lab assistant do? a) Get a new wrapper b) Ignore the hole and continue wrapping the instrument c) Repair the hole with adhesive tape d) Throw the instrument away

A:Get a new wrapper. If a lab assistant discovers that the wrapper for an instrument has a hole before autoclaving, the instrument should not be sterilized in that wrapper. This is because the hole may allow microorganisms to enter the package during sterilization, leading to contamination of the instrument. Instead, the lab assistant should use a ucw wrapper to package the instrument for autoclaving.

8.5 A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to col- lect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next? a) Ask another phlebotomist to collect it. b) Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw c) Collect it by arterial puncture d) Try to draw it one more time

A:Ask another phlebotomist to collect it. Phlebotomists should make no more than two attempts at drawing blood from a patient. If you have made two unsuccessful attempts at drawing blood, then you should let another phlebotomist try.

8.6 The time is 3:50 pm. A phlebotomist has received these test requests on different patients. Which should the phlebotomist collect first? a) CBC ordered STAT b) Cortisol ordered for 4:00 pm c) Fasting glucose d) Post op hemoglobin

A:CBC ordered STAT. The STAT requisition should be collected first because STAT tests have the highest priority. These tests are needed for the immediate management of life-threatening situations.