What is pharmacology?

The study of drugs and how they act and affect a living system.

Who is known as the 'Father of Medicine'?

Hippocrates

What did Hippocrates believe about disease?

He believed that disease has natural causes and that the body has its own healing powers.

What does the term 'pharmaceutical' mean?

It comes from a Greek word meaning poison, reflecting that medications can potentially harm a patient.

What is a drug?

Any substance that changes one or more body functions when taken into a living organism.

What are the local effects of a drug?

Effects that are limited to the area where the drug is given.

What are systemic effects of a drug?

Effects that occur when the drug is absorbed and distributed through the bloodstream to body tissues.

What are the three names of a drug?

Chemical name, Generic name, Trade/Brand name.

What is a chemical name?

It describes the drug's chemical and molecular structure.

What is a generic name?

A common name given to a drug, derived from the chemical name but simpler.

What is a trade/brand name?

The name given by a specific pharmaceutical company, which is copyrighted.

What are the sources of drugs?

Plants, animal glands, minerals, living fungi, and chemical substances.

What is an example of a drug derived from plants?

Quinine, used to treat muscle cramps.

What is an example of a drug derived from animal glands?

Insulin, derived from the pancreas.

What are the three general groups of drugs?

Prescription drugs, Over-the-Counter (OTC) drugs, and Illicit drugs.

What are prescription drugs?

Drugs that require authorization and supervision of a physician.

What are Over-the-Counter (OTC) drugs?

Drugs available directly to the public without a prescription.

What are illicit drugs?

Drugs that are illegal or used inappropriately, such as LSD and cocaine.

What does pharmacokinetics refer to?

What the body does to the drug, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

What does ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics?

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

What is the enteral route of drug administration?

Administration of drugs through the gastrointestinal tract.

What is the parenteral route of drug administration?

Any route that bypasses the GI tract, usually involving injections.

What are the advantages of the enteral route?

Convenient, safe, and economical.

What is the intravenous (IV) route?

Injection of a drug directly into a vein for immediate response.

What is the intramuscular (IM) route?

Injection of a drug into skeletal muscle for rapid absorption.

What is the subcutaneous route?

Drug placement under the skin into connective tissue for slower absorption.

What is the topical/transdermal route?

Application of drugs to the skin or mucous membranes for local or systemic effects.

What is the rectal route of drug administration useful for?

Patients who are vomiting, elderly, very young, or unconscious.

What is an example of a drug that can be administered sublingually?

Nitroglycerin.

What are some forms of topical medications?

Creams, foams, gels, pastes, ointments, solutions, and suppositories.

Where can topical medications be applied?

Skin, respiratory mucous membranes, vagina, rectum, and urethra.

What is the definition of distribution in pharmacology?

The movement of the drug from the bloodstream to areas of the body.

What is metabolism in the context of medications?

Biotransformation or chemical alteration of a medication.

What is a metabolite?

The by-product created when a drug is metabolized.

What are the main mechanisms of drug excretion?

Kidneys (urine), GI tract (feces), lungs (breath), and skin (sweat).

How does aging affect liver metabolism and renal clearance?

Both are slower after age 70.

What is half-life in pharmacology?

The amount of time needed for the active drug in the body to decrease by 50%.

Why is half-life important?

It affects drug accumulation, elimination, management of adverse effects, and clinical trial design.

What does duration of action refer to?

How long the drug remains above the Minimum Effective Concentration (MEC).

What is pharmacodynamics?

What the drug does to the body, including the dose-response relationship.

What is a therapeutic window?

The range between the minimum concentration needed for effectiveness and the concentration that causes toxicity.

What is the minimum effective concentration (MEC)?

The first concentration where a drug effect can be seen.

What is the difference between therapeutic effect and side effect?

Therapeutic effect is the intended medical effect; side effect is an unintended effect that is usually not harmful.

What is tolerance in relation to drug use?

The body's reaction to a drug decreases over time.

What are signs of addiction?

Problems at work/school, poor performance, social dysfunction, neglecting appearance, and excessive spending on substances.

What are teratogens?

Substances that produce physical effects in the fertilized ovum/sperm or developing embryo.

What is potency in pharmacology?

The amount of a drug needed to produce a specific effect.

What does onset of action refer to?

The delay between taking a drug and when its effects begin.

What is the peak level of a drug?

The maximum drug response.

What are important safety rules for medication use?

Keep an updated list of all medications, never take someone else's medication, and report new symptoms to the prescriber.

What factors are considered when prescribing medication?

Type of suspected bacterial pathogen, drug reach to infection site, allergy history, side effects, and cost.

What biological factors affect drug response?

Age, gender, weight, genetic variation, underlying disease, and compliance.

What are the two types of pain?

Nociceptive pain (tissue damage) and neuropathic pain (nerve damage).

What are the three categories of analgesics?

Opioids, acetaminophen, and anti-inflammatory drugs.

What are common side effects of opioids?

Nausea, sedation, constipation, hypotension, and physical dependence.

What are common opioids?

Morphine, Oxycodone, Hydrocodone, Codeine, Fentanyl

How can Fentanyl be administered?

As a transdermal patch

List some side effects of opioids.

Nausea/vomiting, allergic reactions, sedation, drowsiness, dizziness, constipation, hypotension, slowed heart rate, impaired judgment, physical dependence, addiction

What is a common misconception about opioid use?

Providers may overestimate addiction risk and under-prescribe or under-dose opioids.

Is acetaminophen an anti-inflammatory?

No, acetaminophen is NOT anti-inflammatory.

What is the maximum daily dosage for regular acetaminophen?

10 tablets/day or 3,250 mg

What are the three groups of anti-inflammatory agents?

NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, corticosteroids/glucocorticoids

Name some examples of NSAIDs.

Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Ketoprofen

Who should avoid COX-2 inhibitors?

People allergic to sulfonamide antibiotics.

What are some examples of corticosteroids?

Betamethasone, Prednisone, Prednisolone

What is the benefit of intra-articular corticosteroid injections?

They minimize activity/stress on the joint and pain generally decreases within 24-72 hours.

List some side effects of corticosteroids.

Osteonecrosis, tendon rupture, skin atrophy, osteoporosis, increased blood glucose, muscle myopathy, abnormal fat distribution, edema, cataracts, glaucoma, stomach ulcers, insomnia, increased infection risk, mood changes.

What medications are commonly used for angina?

Nitroglycerin

What are the main actions of ACE inhibitors?

They lower blood pressure; heart rate depends.

What is the role of epinephrine and norepinephrine in the body?

They act as neurotransmitters and hormones important in the fight-or-flight response.

What is the normal range for sodium (Na) in mEq/L?

135-145 mEq/L

What does a high ESR indicate?

Inflammation

What are the four major routes of drug administration?

Enteral, Parenteral, Topical, Inhalation

Define MEC in pharmacology.

Minimum concentration needed to produce the first drug effect.

What are the types of pain?

Nociceptive (tissue damage), Neuropathic (nerve damage), Acute (short-term), Chronic (>3 months)

What is the significance of half-life in pharmacology?

It is the time required for the drug amount to decrease by 50%.

What are the common lab tests related to cardiovascular health?

WBC, RBC, ESR, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit

What is the critical hemoglobin level indicating blood loss/anemia?

Critical <8 g/dL

What is the normal blood pH range?

7.35-7.45

What are the layers of the heart?

Endocardium, Myocardium, Epicardium, Pericardium

Where is the apex of the heart located?

At the 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line

What is the base of the heart?

The superior portion located around the 2nd intercostal space behind the sternum.

What is the pericardium?

A double-walled connective tissue sac surrounding the heart that protects it from trauma and infection.

What is the apex of the heart?

The inferior portion of the heart, specifically the tip of the left ventricle, located at the 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line.

How many heart valves are there, and what is their main function?

There are 4 heart valves, and their main job is to prevent backward blood flow.

What is the function of the tricuspid valve?

It prevents blood from flowing backward into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts.

What is the function of the mitral (bicuspid) valve?

It prevents blood from flowing backward into the left atrium.

What is the function of the pulmonary semilunar valve?

It prevents blood from flowing backward into the right ventricle.

What is the function of the aortic semilunar valve?

It prevents blood from flowing backward into the left ventricle.

What is the order of blood flow through the right side of the heart?

Right atrium → Tricuspid valve → Right ventricle → Pulmonary valve.

What are the three layers of the pericardial membranes?

Fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, and visceral pericardium.

What is the role of the fibrous pericardium?

It is the outermost surface that extends down into the diaphragm and surrounds blood vessels entering/exiting the heart.

What does the visceral pericardium also refer to?

It is also called the epicardium and encloses the heart itself.

What is unique about the pulmonary artery?

It is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs.

What is the function of the aorta?

It carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body.

What is the role of chordae tendineae?

They are fibrous connective-tissue bands that extend from papillary muscles to tricuspid and mitral valves, preventing valves from opening during ventricular contraction.

What are baroreceptors and where are they located?

Baroreceptors are located in the walls of the aorta and carotid arteries and monitor changes in blood pressure.

What is the function of the medulla in heart control?

It contains the cardiac control center that adjusts heart rate and force of contraction through the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the heart?

It causes tachycardia (increased heart rate) and increased force of contraction.

What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the heart?

It causes bradycardia (decreased heart rate) and travels through the vagus nerve.

What is the cardiac conduction system order?

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branches → Purkinje network.

What is the role of the SA node?

It is where the impulse begins and spreads across the atria, causing atrial contraction.

What does the cardiac cycle consist of?

Diastole (relaxation) and systole (contraction).

What is the difference between diastole and systole?

Diastole is the relaxation phase where the heart fills with blood, while systole is the contraction phase where blood is pumped out.

What are the heart sounds S1 and S2?

S1 ('LUBB') is the closure of tricuspid and mitral valves; S2 ('DUBB') is the closure of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves.

What is the average blood volume in adults?

Approximately 7% of body weight, about 4.7-5.5 L for an adult weighing 150-180 lb.

What is cardiac output (CO)?

The amount of blood pumped by a ventricle in one minute, calculated as CO = stroke volume (SV) × heart rate (HR).

What is stroke volume (SV)?

The amount of blood pumped from one ventricle during one contraction.

What is the normal resting Heart Rate (HR)?

70 beats per minute (bpm).

What does a blood pressure reading of 120/80 mmHg represent?

120 is the systolic pressure and 80 is the diastolic pressure.

What is Systolic Pressure?

The top number in a blood pressure reading, indicating pressure during contraction of the left ventricle.

What is Diastolic Pressure?

The bottom number in a blood pressure reading, indicating pressure when the ventricles are relaxed.

What equipment is used to measure blood pressure?

Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope.

What factors influence blood pressure?

Cardiac output, peripheral resistance, blood volume, blood viscosity, venous return, force of heart contraction, and arterial elasticity.

What is the role of ADH in blood pressure regulation?

ADH increases blood volume and blood pressure.

How do epinephrine and norepinephrine affect blood pressure?

They increase vasoconstriction and can increase heart rate and force of contraction.

What is the primary function of arteries?

To carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, except for the pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood.

What are the three layers of arteries?

Tunica intima (inner endothelium), tunica media (middle smooth muscle layer), and tunica externa (outer fibrous layer).

What is the function of veins?

To carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart, except for pulmonary veins which carry oxygenated blood.

What is an anastomosis?

An interconnection between blood vessels that provides alternate blood-flow routes if a vessel becomes blocked.

What occurs in capillaries?

Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse between blood and tissues.

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

To support the immune system, return excess interstitial fluid to blood, prevent fluid buildup/edema, and help prevent unwanted material from entering the bloodstream.

What are lymph nodes?

Filter beds that help trap pathogens and debris; major groups include axillary, neck, and inguinal.

What does the spleen produce?

Red blood cells before birth, lymphocytes after birth, monocytes after birth, and antibodies through plasma cells.

What is the formula for Rate-Pressure Product (RPP)?

RPP = Heart Rate (HR) × Systolic Blood Pressure (BP).

What does an RPP indicate?

It indicates aerobic exercise condition; as aerobic fitness increases, RPP decreases.

What is the Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE)?

A subjective way of monitoring exercise intensity based on the patient's total feeling of exertion.

What is the important RPE range for cardiac rehabilitation?

11-13, which corresponds to about 70% of maximum HR during exercise.

What are common signs and symptoms of cardiac disease?

Atrial fibrillation, cyanosis, dyspnea, edema, jugular vein distension, fatigue, heart block, intermittent claudication, pain, palpitations, PVCs, reduced ejection fraction, syncope, and ventricular fibrillation.

What does depolarization signify?

Muscle contraction.

What does repolarization signify?

Muscle relaxation.

What is central cyanosis?

Occurs when oxygen levels are below 80%, caused by decreased arterial oxygen saturation or total circulating hemoglobin.

What is first-degree heart block?

A condition where electrical impulses are slowed but do not interfere with heart contractions.

What is intermittent claudication?

Exercise-induced pain/cramping in the legs that is absent at rest, usually occurring in the calf.

What is the purpose of Buerger-Allen exercises?

To improve lower-extremity circulation.

What are the signs and symptoms of right-sided congestive heart failure (CHF)?

Edema of extremities, ascites, flushed face/headache, jugular vein distension, and fatigue.

What are common signs and symptoms of left-sided congestive heart failure (CHF)?

Dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles, wheezes, cough, cyanosis, confusion, tachycardia.

What are some causes of left-sided CHF?

Left ventricular infarction, aortic valve stenosis, hypertension, hyperthyroidism.

What diagnostic test involves imaging the heart's chambers and blood vessels?

Cardiac catheterization & angiography.

What is the purpose of echocardiography?

To visualize heart structures and assess heart function.

What does an electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) measure?

The electrical activity of the heart.

What is angina pectoris?

Chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle.

What is the main difference between atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis?

Atherosclerosis involves the build-up of fats, while arteriosclerosis is the general hardening of arteries.

What medication class decreases resistance to blood flow in CHF?

ACE inhibitors.

What is the function of beta blockers in CHF treatment?

They decrease heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand.

What are common findings in right-sided CHF?

Edema, ascites, jugular venous distension (JVD), flushed face, headache, fatigue.

What is the purpose of nitroglycerin in angina treatment?

To relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels.

What are the risks associated with blood thinners?

Bleeding and osteoporosis with long-term use.

What is myocardial infarction (MI)?

A condition where blood flow to the heart muscle is blocked, causing tissue damage.

What is the significance of collateral circulation after an MI?

It supplies blood to areas of the heart muscle surrounding necrotic tissue.

What are the three major valve problems in heart disease?

Stenosis, insufficiency/regurgitation, and prolapse.

What is the normal range for ejection fraction (EF)?

55-65%.

What does cardiac output (CO) measure?

The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute.

What is the role of diuretics in CHF management?

To remove excess water and salt from the body.

What is the purpose of a stress test in cardiac diagnostics?

To assess the heart's performance under physical stress.

What is pericarditis?

Inflammation of the pericardium, the membrane surrounding the heart.

What is the treatment for valve incompetence before dental work?

Prophylactic antibiotics should be taken.

What is the definition of congestive heart failure (CHF)?

A condition where the heart cannot adequately meet the body's needs.

What is the function of digitalis in heart failure treatment?

It increases the heart's pumping ability and slows the heart rate.

What is the normal stroke volume (SV)?

Approximately 70 mL.

What is the definition of ischemic heart disease?

Inadequate blood/oxygen supply to heart tissue.

What are the PTA precautions after pacemaker surgery?

Avoid reaching overhead on the surgical side for 4-6 weeks and follow MD orders.

What is the significance of splinter hemorrhages in endocarditis?

They are a sign of potential infection affecting the heart valves.

What is Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)?

A condition characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, leading to symptoms like gangrene and intermittent claudication.

What should be avoided in patients with PVD?

Heat, massage, and compression.

What are some recommended practices for managing PVD?

Proper lower extremity positioning, smoking cessation, blood pressure control, Buerger-Allen exercises, and skin inspection.

What is Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)?

A rare autoimmune disease where immune cells attack and inflame arteries, veins, and capillaries.

What does 'Nodosa' refer to in Polyarteritis Nodosa?

It refers to the formation of nodules or knots in the affected blood vessels.

What is Raynaud's Disease?

A condition involving abnormal blood vessel responses, particularly in the extremities, often triggered by cold or stress.

What is Buerger's Disease?

An inflammatory obstruction of blood vessels, characterized by blood clots and inflammation.

What is thrombophlebitis?

Inflammation of a vein associated with a thrombus (blood clot).

What diagnostic test is used for suspected Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

Doppler ultrasound.

What are varicose veins?

Enlarged, abnormal veins resulting from issues with venous blood return and valve function.

What is leukocytosis?

An increase in white blood cells, often associated with infection.

What is leukopenia?

A decrease in white blood cells that can lead to decreased immune function.

What is polycythemia?

An increase in red blood cells, which can occur due to lung disease, high altitude, or dehydration.

What are the types of lymphedema?

Pitting edema, brawny edema, and weeping edema, each with varying severity and characteristics.

What is the significance of the Stemmer sign?

A positive Stemmer sign indicates lymphedema, where the skin cannot be lifted from the second toe or middle finger.

What are the stages of lymphedema?

Stage 0 (Latency), Stage I (Reversible), Stage II (Spontaneously Irreversible), and Stage III (Lymphostatic Elephantiasis).

What is hypovolemic shock?

A condition that can lead to organ failure due to significant loss of blood volume.

What are the phases of outpatient cardiac rehabilitation?

Phase I (Acute), Phase II (Subacute), Phase III (Intensive rehabilitation), and Phase IV (Ongoing rehabilitation).

What is the role of ACE inhibitors in cardiac pharmacology?

They prevent vasoconstriction, decrease afterload, and lower resistance to blood flow.

What do beta blockers do?

They decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand by blocking β-adrenergic receptors.

What is the function of calcium channel blockers?

They dilate coronary arteries, decrease blood pressure, and suppress some arrhythmias.

What is the normal range for potassium (K) in mEq/L?

3.5-5.5 mEq/L.

What is the difference between S1 and S2 heart sounds?

S1 (LUBB) occurs with mitral and tricuspid closure at the beginning of ventricular systole; S2 (DUBB) occurs with aortic and pulmonary closure at the beginning of ventricular diastole.

What are the key differences between arteries and veins?

Arteries carry blood away from the heart and are usually oxygenated; veins carry blood toward the heart and are usually deoxygenated.

What precautions should be taken with patients who have endocarditis?

Chest physical therapy should be avoided.

What should be monitored in patients undergoing cardiac rehab?

Vital signs, rate of perceived exertion (RPE), and signs/symptoms.

What are the major functions of the lungs?

Gas exchange, regulation of blood pH, and filtration of air.

What structures comprise the upper respiratory tract?

Nose, nasal passages, pharynx, and larynx.

What is the role of cilia in the nasal cavity?

Cilia help filter unwanted material from the air.

What is the function of the epiglottis?

It closes during swallowing or coughing to prevent food from entering the trachea.

What is the main airway structure in the lower respiratory tract?

The trachea.

What is the significance of the carina?

It is important for the cough reflex.

What are the terminal air sacs in the lungs called?

Alveoli.

What is the primary muscle of inspiration?

The diaphragm.

What happens to the thoracic cavity during inhalation?

It increases in size, creating negative pressure that allows air to move into the lungs.

What is surfactant and its role in the lungs?

Surfactant is a fluid between the pleural layers that allows the pleura to glide over one another.

What are the two types of pleura covering the lungs?

Visceral pleura (attached to the lung) and parietal pleura (lines the thoracic cavity).

What is the Hering-Breuer reflex?

A reflex that delays the next inhalation when the lungs become overinflated.

What is eupnea?

Normal resting breathing at a rate of 12-20 breaths per minute.

What is apnea?

Cessation of breathing.

What is the primary function of the vagus nerve in the respiratory system?

It provides autonomic input to the heart and lungs.

What is the definition of tidal volume (TV)?

The normal amount of air breathed in and out, approximately 500 mL.

What is forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)?

The volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled in one second.

What characterizes obstructive lung disease?

Inability to fully exhale air, leading to air trapping.

What are common examples of obstructive lung diseases?

COPD, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, cystic fibrosis, asthma, and bronchiectasis.

What is the significance of the FEV1/FVC ratio in lung function?

It is used to diagnose obstructive and restrictive lung diseases.

What is the normal range for FEV1 in healthy adults?

Approximately 80% of vital capacity (VC).

What happens to lung volumes in obstructive lung disease?

Decreased FEV1, normal or slightly decreased FVC, and increased residual volume (RV).

What is the role of accessory muscles in respiration?

They assist with ventilation during increased respiratory demand.

What is Kussmaul respiration associated with?

Metabolic acidosis, characterized by rapid, shallow breathing that becomes deep and labored.

What are the primary muscles involved in forced expiration?

Internal intercostals and abdominal muscles.

What is the definition of vital capacity (VC)?

The maximum amount of air exhaled after maximum inhalation.

What is the total lung capacity (TLC)?

The total amount of air the lungs can hold, approximately 5,500 mL.

What is the role of chemoreceptors in respiratory control?

They respond to changes in CO₂ and oxygen levels to regulate breathing rate and depth.

What is the FEV1/FVC ratio in Stage I COPD?

<0.70

What percentage of predicted FEV1 is seen in Stage I COPD?

≥80%

What are common symptoms of Stage II COPD?

Cough/sputum and shortness of breath with exertion

What characterizes Stage IV COPD?

Very severe disease with FEV1 <30% or <50% + chronic respiratory failure

What is the hypoxic drive theory in chronic CO₂ retainers?

Low oxygen detected by peripheral chemoreceptors may become more important in stimulating breathing.

What is a 'blue bloater'?

A term for patients with chronic bronchitis who have a blue appearance due to low oxygen levels.

What is a 'pink puffer'?

A term for patients with emphysema characterized by obstructive disease and air trapping.

What defines restrictive lung disease?

Inability of the lungs to fully expand.

Name one intrinsic cause of restrictive lung disease.

Examples include sarcoidosis, pneumoconiosis, or pulmonary fibrosis.

What is the difference between obstructive and restrictive lung disease?

Obstructive: trouble getting air out; Restrictive: trouble getting air in.

What is the normal value for the V/Q ratio?

0.8 (80%)

What happens during respiratory acidosis?

CO₂ increases, leading to a decrease in pH.

What is the purpose of spirometry?

To measure lung function.

What is the normal range for chest excursion?

3-5 cm

What does stridor indicate?

A harsh, high-pitched sound from the upper airway, often associated with obstruction.

What does wheezing indicate?

A high-pitched, whistling sound associated with airway obstruction.

What is hemoptysis?

Coughing or spitting blood, indicating a pathological condition.

What does a 'frothy' sputum appearance indicate?

Pulmonary edema.

What is the significance of coffee-ground vomit/sputum?

Indicates an upper GI bleed due to RBCs exposed to gastric acid.

What is the primary function of bronchodilators?

To relax and open the airways.

What is a pneumonectomy?

Surgical removal of a lung.

What is the main muscle of inspiration?

Diaphragm.

What is the definition of tachypnea?

Breathing rate greater than 24 breaths per minute.

What is the primary cause of clubbing in respiratory diseases?

Long-term disease (>6 months) leading to chronic hypoxia.

What is the target arterial PO₂ for preventing hypoxia?

50-60 torr.

What is the role of humidification in respiratory care?

To moisten the airways and improve comfort during breathing.

What is the difference between productive and nonproductive cough?

Productive cough produces sputum; nonproductive does not.

What is the significance of rust-colored sputum?

Indicates pneumococcal pneumonia.

What is the purpose of an incentive spirometer?

To encourage deep inhalation and prevent atelectasis.

What does the term 'pulmonary fibrosis' refer to?

Scarring of lung tissue that restricts lung expansion.

What is the definition of ARDS?

Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome, characterized by rapid lung failure.

What are common signs and symptoms of pulmonary disease?

Cough, dyspnea, cyanosis, chest pain, abnormal chest shape.

What is the role of mechanical ventilation?

To assist or replace spontaneous breathing.

What is the primary concern in treating patients with chronic CO₂ retention?

Preventing hypoxia while managing ventilation.