1.1 What is the word for an inanimate object that can transmit infectious agents from one individual to another? A. Bacteria B. Fomite C. Germ D. Parasite

1.1 — B: Fomite A fomite is an inanimate object capable of carrying and transmitting infectious agents. Examples include countertops, doorknobs, phones, and handrails.

1.2 Which of these is an example of regulated waste? A. Empty medicine bottles B. Patient gowns C. Sterile dressings D. Used blood tubes

1.2 — D: Used blood tubes Used blood tubes are regulated waste because they may contain blood or other potentially infectious materials that can transmit bloodborne pathogens.

1.3 What is the most common type of fire extinguisher in clinical laboratories? A. ABC B. Class A C. Class B D. Class C

1.3 — A: ABC ABC extinguishers are the most common in clinical labs because they can extinguish Class A (paper/wood), Class B (flammable liquids), and Class C (electrical) fires.

1.4 Class D fires involve: A. Combustible metals B. Electrical equipment C. Flammable liquids D. Paper and wood

1.4 — A: Combustible metals Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and titanium. These require special extinguishing agents; water can worsen the fire.

1.5 What type of fire extinguisher can be used on a methane gas fire? A. ABC powder B. AFFF foam C. Carbon dioxide D. Water

1.5 — A: ABC powder Methane is a flammable gas, and only dry chemical powder extinguishers (ABC powder) are appropriate. CO₂, AFFF foam, and water must not be used on methane gas fires.

1.6 Which of these is written information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials? A. OSHA B. OSM C. SDS D. TOSM

1.6 — C: SDS An SDS (Safety Data Sheet) is written information supplied by manufacturers describing hazards, safe handling, and emergency measures for chemicals.

1.7 How thick is a 5‑mil glove? A. 0.005 inches B. 0.005 millimetres C. 0.5 millimetres D. 5 millimetres

1.7 — A: 0.005 inches A “mil” is one‑thousandth of an inch, so a 5‑mil glove is 0.005 inches thick.

1.8 In the event of an acid burn, what should your first action be? A. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline B. Flush the area with water C. Go to the emergency department D. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate

1.8 — B: Flush the area with water For acid or chemical skin exposure, the first action is to flush the area with copious water to dilute and remove the chemical.

1.9 Which of these burns is the most life‑threatening? A. First‑degree B. Second‑degree C. Third‑degree D. Combination

1.9 — C: Third‑degree Third‑degree burns are the most life‑threatening because they destroy both the epidermis and dermis and may damage deeper tissues.

1.10 The Heimlich maneuver is used for: A. Choking B. Heart attack C. Poisoning D. Syncope

1.10 — A: Choking The Heimlich maneuver relieves upper airway obstruction by forcing air from the lungs to expel the blockage.

1.11 In CPR, how many chest compressions should be given per second? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

1.11 — B: 2 CPR chest compressions should be delivered at 100–120 per minute, which is about 2 per second.

1.12 In the event of a chemical splash to the eyes, what is the minimum time the eyes should be flushed with water? A. 1 minute B. 5 minutes C. 10 minutes D. 15 minutes

1.12 — D: 15 minutes Eyes exposed to chemicals must be flushed with water for at least 15 minutes to prevent long‑term damage.

1.13 Bottles of organic peroxides require which two pictograms? A. Flame and exploding bomb B. Flame and flame over a circle C. Health hazard and exclamation mark D. Health hazard and gas cylinder

1.13 — A: Flame and exploding bomb Organic peroxides can ignite or explode when heated, so they require both the flame and exploding bomb pictograms.

1.14 Which of these items of information is NOT required on a supplier label of a hazardous product? A. A hazard statement describing the nature of the hazard B. A hazard symbol C. The contact details of the Canadian manufacturer or importer D. The website of the Canadian manufacturer or importer

1.14 — D: The website of the Canadian manufacturer/importer WHMIS supplier labels must include: product name hazard symbols hazard statements contact details of the manufacturer/importer A website is not required.

1.15 WHMIS stands for: A. Warehouse Methods and Industrial Security B. Workbook of Harmful Material Information Sheets C. Worker Handbook on Mechanical and Industrial Safety D. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System

1.15 — D: Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System WHMIS is Canada’s system for providing health and safety information on hazardous workplace products.

1.16 If the word “Forbidden” is written in column 3 of a Hazardous Materials Table, it means the material should not be: A. Discarded B. Ingested C. Transported D. Used

1.16 — C: Transported If “Forbidden” appears in Column 3 of the Hazardous Materials Table, the material must not be transported.

1.17 Mercury spills are most dangerous when the spill occurs: A. In a fume hood B. In a poorly ventilated area C. Near sources of ignition D. Near the flammable storage cabinet

1.17 — B: In a poorly ventilated area Mercury vapors are toxic. Spills are most dangerous in poorly ventilated areas, where vapors can accumulate.

1.18 Which of these is used when cleaning a radioactive spill? A. Tongs B. Soda ash C. Spill pillow D. Soda lime

1.18 — A: Tongs Tongs or forceps allow radioactive materials to be handled from a safe distance, reducing exposure.

1.19 Which of the following plastics is autoclavable? A. High‑density polyethylene B. Polypropylene C. Polystyrene D. Polyurethane

1.19 — B: Polypropylene Polypropylene is autoclavable. Other plastics listed may melt or deform in an autoclave.

1.20 Which of these methods results in sterilization? A. Autoclaving B. Chemical disinfectants C. Freezing D. Soap and water

1.20 — A: Autoclaving Autoclaving is the only method listed that sterilizes, killing all microorganisms including spores. Disinfectants reduce microbes but do not sterilize.

1.21 The cabinet with the highest personal, environmental, and specimen protection is the: A. Class A biological safety cabinet B. Class I biological safety cabinet C. Class II biological safety cabinet D. Class III biological safety cabinet

1.21 — D: Class III biological safety cabinet Class III cabinets provide the highest level of protection for personnel, environment, and specimens.

1.22 Which chemical is added to formalin as a stabilizer? A. Half‑normal saline B. Iodine C. Methanol D. Sodium phosphate

1.22 — C: Methanol Manufacturers add methanol to formalin to prevent polymerization of formaldehyde into paraformaldehyde.

1.23 Class 8 hazardous materials are: A. Corrosive B. Explosive C. Poisonous D. Radioactive

1.23 — A: Corrosive Class 8 hazardous materials are corrosives, which destroy living tissue and corrode metals.

2.1 You have to draw blood from a nervous patient. What should you do? A. Be friendly and confident B. Cancel the requisition and send them home C. Tell the patient the needle won't hurt D. Tell the patient to calm down

2.1 — A: Be friendly and confident A calm, confident manner helps reduce patient anxiety and improves cooperation during venipuncture.

2.2 There are several short lengths of IV‑type tubing protruding from a patient’s chest. This is most likely a: A. CVC B. PICC C. Arterial line D. Implanted port

2.2 — A: CVC A central venous catheter (CVC) is a short length of IV‑type tubing inserted into a large vein and used for medications, fluids, or transfusions.

2.3 A patient has a mastectomy on the right side. What special precaution is needed when drawing blood from this patient? A. Check the patient’s white blood cell count first B. Do not draw blood from the right arm C. Make sure the patient is lying down D. Make sure the patient is sitting

2.3 — B: Do not draw blood from the right arm After a mastectomy, lymphatic drainage is impaired on that side, increasing the risk of infection and lymphedema.

2.4 During phlebotomy, in which direction should the bevel be facing when the needle enters the arm? A. Downwards B. To the left C. To the right D. Upwards

2.4 — D: Upwards The bevel must face upward so the needle can enter the skin smoothly and access the vein properly.

2.5 Which test result is most affected when collected from a crying infant? A. Bilirubin B. Cholesterol C. Lead level D. White blood cell count

2.5 — D: White blood cell count Crying increases stress hormones, which temporarily elevate WBC counts in infants.

2.6 A phlebotomist is collecting blood from the vein of a 14‑month‑old baby when the blood stops flowing. Which action should the phlebotomist take to try to continue the draw? A. Give the baby something sweet to eat B. Release the tourniquet C. Try a new tube D. Try to collect blood from the baby’s heel instead

2.6 — C: Try a new tube A vacuum failure is common; replacing the tube is the first troubleshooting step.

2.7 Light blue top vacutainer tubes require a citrate‑to‑blood ratio of: A. 1:3 B. 1:6 C. 1:9 D. 1:12

2.7 — C: 1:9 Light blue tubes require a 1 part citrate : 9 parts blood ratio for accurate coagulation testing.

2.8 What special action does a phlebotomist need to take before drawing a light blue top tube with a butterfly needle? A. Draw a discard tube B. Get a bucket of ice ready C. Label the tube D. Make sure the patient is lying down

2.8 — A: Draw a discard tube A butterfly set contains air in the tubing; a discard tube ensures the blue‑top tube fills to the correct volume.

2.9 Which of these tests is collected in a light blue top tube? A. Differential B. Hematocrit C. Platelet count D. Prothrombin time

2.9 — D: Prothrombin time PT/INR testing uses sodium citrate (light blue top).

2.10 What colour is the top of a plasma separator tube? A. Green B. Lavender C. Light blue D. Yellow

2.10 — A: Green Plasma separator tubes (PST) have green tops and contain lithium heparin.

2.11 A winged infusion set is also called a ______ needle. A. Milliner’s B. Butterfly C. Straight D. Universal

2.11 — B: Butterfly A winged infusion set is commonly called a butterfly needle.

2.12 24‑gauge needles are used for: A. Diabetics B. Infants C. Obese patients D. Patients with AIDS

2.12 — B: Infants A 24‑gauge needle is very small and used for delicate or tiny veins, such as in infants.

2.13 The gauge size of a needle indicates the diameter of the needle’s: A. Bevel B. Hub C. Lumen D. Shaft

2.13 — C: Lumen The gauge number reflects the diameter of the lumen — the hollow center of the needle.

2.14 A patient is still bleeding from a venipuncture site five minutes after the blood draw. What should the phlebotomist do? A. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient B. Give the patient an anti‑inflammatory medication C. Notify the patient’s nurse D. Tell the patient it is okay to leave

2.14 — C: Notify the patient’s nurse Persistent bleeding (especially in anticoagulated patients) requires clinical follow‑up.

2.15 After a blood draw, which of these instructions should you tell the patient? A. Bend your arm a few times B. Hold the cotton wool in place for 5 minutes C. Refrain from drinking fluids for the next 2–3 hours D. Walk around if you feel lightheaded

2.15 — B: Hold the cotton wool in place for 5 minutes Pressure helps stop bleeding and prevents hematoma formation.

2.16 What term means “without infection”? A. Antibiotic B. Aseptic C. Septic D. Stasis

2.16 — B: Aseptic Aseptic means free from infection.

2.17 The study of how the body functions is called: A. Anatomy B. Histology C. Microbiology D. Physiology

2.17 — D: Physiology Physiology is the study of how the body functions.

2.18 Cartilage found between the bones of the spine is called: A. Articular cartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Hyaline cartilage

2.18 — C: Fibrocartilage Fibrocartilage is the strong, dense cartilage found between vertebrae.

2.19 Substances that prevent blood clotting are called: A. Anticoagulants B. Coagulants C. Platelets D. Thrombi

2.19 — A: Anticoagulants Anticoagulants prevent blood from clotting.

2.20 A resting metabolic state early in the morning after a minimum of twelve hours of fasting is called a ______ state. A. Absorptive B. Basal C. Postprandial D. Starvation

2.20 — B: Basal The basal state occurs early morning after 12 hours fasting, ideal for many lab tests.

2.21 What does intercostal mean? A. Between blood vessels B. Between the ribs C. The rib cage D. Within a joint space

2.21 — B: Between the ribs Intercostal = between the ribs.

2.22 Which term means the abnormal build‑up of fluid in the abdomen? A. Ascites B. Cellulitis C. Edema D. Paracentesis

2.22 — A: Ascites Ascites is abnormal fluid accumulation in the abdomen.

2.23 Bone cells that absorb and remove unwanted bone tissue are called: A. Calcani B. Exocytes C. Fossas D. Osteoclasts

2.23 — D: Osteoclasts Osteoclasts break down and remove bone tissue.

2.24 White blood cells are also known as: A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes C. Osteocytes D. Thrombocytes

2.24 — B: Leukocytes Leukocytes are white blood cells.

2.25 What is the term for the production of blood cells and platelets? A. Apheresis B. Coagulation C. Hemopoiesis D. Hemosynthesis

2.25 — C: Hemopoiesis Hemopoiesis is the production of blood cells and platelets.

2.26 Adipose tissue is more commonly known as: A. Bone B. Cartilage C. Fat D. Skin

2.26 — C: Fat Adipose tissue = fat.

2.27 Buccal means pertaining to the: A. Cheek B. Soft palate C. Teeth D. Tongue

2.27 — A: Cheek Buccal refers to the cheek.

2.28 Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary vein D. Superior vena cava

2.28 — B: Pulmonary artery The pulmonary artery carries blood from the heart to the lungs.

2.29 Which anatomical plane separates the body into front and back? A. Frontal B. Oblique C. Sagittal D. Transverse

2.29 — A: Frontal The frontal plane divides the body into front and back.

2.30 Which prefix means “the liver”? A. Adeno‑ B. Gastro‑ C. Hepato‑ D. Nephro‑

2.30 — C: Hepato‑ Hepato‑ refers to the liver.

2.31 Which suffix means “hardening”? A. ‑pathy B. ‑plegia C. ‑sclerosis D. ‑stomy

2.31 — C: ‑sclerosis ‑sclerosis means hardening.

2.32 Which does the prefix adeno‑ refer to? A. Glands B. Joints C. Kidney D. Liver

2.32 — A: Glands Adeno‑ refers to glands.

2.33 What is the medical term for fever? A. Hypertension B. Hypothermia C. Pyrexia D. Tachypnea

2.33 — C: Pyrexia Pyrexia = fever.

2.34 What is the medical term for a heart attack? A. Angina B. Angina pectoris C. Cardiomyopathy D. Myocardial infarction

2.34 — D: Myocardial infarction A myocardial infarction is a heart attack caused by blocked coronary arteries.

2.35 Small red or purple spots caused by a minor hemorrhage are called: A. Palachiae B. Parachiae C. Pasachiae D. Petechiae

2.35 — D: Petechiae Petechiae are tiny red/purple spots from small hemorrhages under the skin.

2.36 What is a fistula? A. A knot of old scar tissue B. A vein that has become distended and engorged C. An abnormal connection between two parts of the body D. An infection of the large intestine

2.36 — C: An abnormal connection between two parts of the body A fistula is an abnormal passage between organs or vessels.

2.37 What is a hematoma? A. A cancer of the blood that originates in red blood cells B. A cut in the skin C. A localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels D. A severed artery

2.37 — C: A localized collection of blood outside blood vessels A hematoma forms when blood leaks into surrounding tissue.

2.38 What is otitis? A. An abnormal discharge from the nose B. An eye infection C. Ear inflammation D. Inflammation of the sinuses

2.38 — C: Ear inflammation Otitis = inflammation of the ear.

2.39 Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose to which molecule? A. Galactose B. Glucose C. Glycogen D. Sucrose

2.39 — C: Glycogen Insulin stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage.

2.40 Which of these is an enzyme? A. Glucagon B. Glucagon (duplicate in original) C. Lipase D. Lipid

2.40 — C: Lipase Lipase is an enzyme that breaks down fats.

2.41 Loose connective tissue is also called: A. Areolar B. Cuboidal C. Squamous D. Transitional

2.41 — A: Areolar Areolar tissue is loose connective tissue.

2.42 Which of these fluids is clear and colourless? A. Cerebrospinal fluid B. Lymph fluid C. Serum D. Urine

2.42 — A: Cerebrospinal fluid CSF is normally clear and colorless.

2.43 How many teeth do adults have? A. 20 B. 28 C. 32 D. 40

2.43 — C: 32 Adults typically have 32 teeth.

2.44 What is the first step of hemostasis? A. Blood coagulation B. Temporary blockage of a break by a platelet plug C. Vasoconstriction D. Vasodilation

2.44 — C: Vasoconstriction The first step of hemostasis is vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow.

2.45 Type 1 diabetes mellitus: A. Is an autoimmune condition B. Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus C. Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis D. Usually occurs after age 40

2.45 — A: Is an autoimmune condition Type 1 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.

2.46 Which of these diseases is a viral infection of the liver? A. HIV B. Hepatitis B C. Syphilis D. Tuberculosis

2.46 — B: Hepatitis B Hepatitis B is a viral infection of the liver.

2.47 Which chromosome is only present in males? A. 1 B. 2 C. X D. Y

2.47 — D: Y Only males have a Y chromosome.

2.48 What are the main signs of nephrotic syndrome? A. Hemoglobinuria, hypernatremia, and thrombocytopenia B. Ketonuria, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia C. Proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, and hypoalbuminemia D. Pyuria, hyperglycemia, and leukopenia

2.48 — C: Proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia These are hallmark signs of nephrotic syndrome.

2.49 Which type of jaundice is due to a blockage in the bile duct? A. Hepatocellular B. Neonatal C. Post‑hepatic D. Pre‑hepatic

2.49 — C: Post‑hepatic Post‑hepatic jaundice results from bile duct obstruction.

2.50 Which of these is an inherited metabolic disorder detected through newborn screening? A. Vitamin D deficiency B. Congenital hypothyroidism C. Phenylketonuria D. Sickle cell disease

2.50 — C: Phenylketonuria PKU is detected through newborn screening.

2.51 The larger of the two lower leg bones is the: A. Condoyle B. Fibula C. Tibia D. Ulna

2.51 — C: Tibia The tibia is the larger lower‑leg bone.

2.52 Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the re‑absorption of: A. Glucose B. Oxygen C. Potassium D. Water

2.52 — D: Water ADH increases water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2.53 What is the functional unit of the kidney? A. Glomerular tuft B. Glomerulus C. Loop of Henle D. Nephron

2.53 — D: Nephron The nephron is the kidney’s functional unit.

2.54 In the kidneys, substances travel from the glomerulus into the Bowman capsule by which process? A. Active transport B. Diffusion C. Filtration D. Osmosis

2.54 — C: Filtration Substances move from the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule by filtration.

2.55 The parasympathetic nervous system: A. Decreases the metabolic rate B. Is also known as the enteric nervous system C. Is part of the somatic nervous system D. Is under voluntary control

2.55 — A: Decreases the metabolic rate The parasympathetic system promotes “rest and digest.”

2.56 Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the neuron? A. Axon B. Cell body C. Dendrite D. Myelin sheath

2.56 — A: Axon The axon carries impulses away from the neuron.

2.57 Which cellular component is involved in packaging enzymes? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. Ribosomes

2.57 — B: Golgi apparatus The Golgi packages and processes enzymes and proteins.

2.58 Which enzyme joins fragments of DNA together? A. DNase B. Exonuclease C. Ligase D. Primase

2.58 — C: Ligase Ligase joins DNA fragments together.

2.59 Deficiencies of which two vitamins cause megaloblastic anemia? A. Vitamins A and C B. Vitamins B3 and B6 C. Vitamins B9 and B12 D. Vitamins C and D

2.59 — C: Vitamins B9 and B12 Deficiency of folate (B9) or B12 causes megaloblastic anemia.

2.60 Deficiency of which mineral or vitamin causes pernicious anemia? A. Folate B. Iron C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin B6

2.60 — C: Vitamin B12 B12 deficiency causes pernicious anemia.

2.61 A deficiency of which mineral can cause anemia? A. Calcium B. Iodine C. Iron D. Zinc

2.61 — C: Iron Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anemia.

2.62 Which of these is an autoimmune disorder? A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome B. Anaphylactic shock C. Lymphedema D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

2.62 — D: Systemic lupus erythematosus SLE is an autoimmune disorder.

2.63 Which antibody causes asthma? A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM

2.63 — B: IgE IgE mediates allergic reactions, including asthma.

2.64 A requisition says that a specimen is to be drawn at 1530. What is that in 12‑hour time? A. 1:30 pm B. 3:30 pm C. 5:30 pm D. 7:30 pm

2.64 — B: 3:30 pm 1530 in 24‑hour time = 3:30 pm.

2.65 What is the temperature of a laboratory refrigerator? A. –4°C B. 0°C C. 3°C D. 30°C

2.65 — C: 3°C Lab refrigerators are maintained at 2–8°C, typically around 3–4°C.

2.66 Which test measures the oxygen‑carrying capacity of red blood cells? A. CBC B. ESR C. Hct D. Hgb

2.66 — D: Hgb Hemoglobin measures the oxygen‑carrying capacity of RBCs.

2.67 Which of these is higher in capillary blood than in venous blood? A. Calcium B. Carotene C. Glucose D. Total protein

2.67 — C: Glucose Capillary blood has slightly higher glucose due to tissue uptake differences.

2.68 What is the buffy coat made of? A. Granulocytes and fibrin B. Red blood cells and granulocytes C. Reticulocytes and granulocytes D. White blood cells and platelets

2.68 — D: White blood cells and platelets The buffy coat contains WBCs and platelets.

2.69 Which of these practices is dangerous and should be avoided? A. Immediately performing first aid to someone exposed to blood B. Recapping used needles using both hands C. Securing used sharps containers during transport D. Using plasticware instead of glass

2.69 — B: Recapping used needles using both hands This is extremely dangerous and increases needlestick risk.

2.70 When collecting a semen sample, the patient should: A. Collect the entire ejaculate, including the first drops B. Keep the sample on ice during transport C. Use a latex condom D. Use a lubricant

2.70 — A: Collect the entire ejaculate, including the first drops The first portion contains the highest sperm concentration.

2.71 Which fingers are used for finger puncture? A. Little finger and ring finger B. Little finger and thumb C. Middle finger and ring finger D. Ring finger and thumb

2.71 — C: Middle finger and ring finger These fingers provide the safest capillary puncture sites.

2.72 Which sample is needed for a cardiac enzyme test? A. Blood B. Sputum C. Sweat D. Urine

2.72 — A: Blood Cardiac enzyme tests require blood specimens.

2.73 To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe, and: A. A butterfly needle B. A tourniquet C. Alcohol wipes D. Ice water

2.73 — C: Alcohol wipes Alcohol wipes are required for arterial puncture preparation.

2.74 What does a hemoglobin A1c test measure? A. The amount of hemoglobin in the patient’s blood B. The concentration of red blood cells in the patient’s blood C. The patient’s average blood glucose levels over the last three months D. The patient’s blood glucose level at the time the sample is drawn

2.74 — C: The patient’s average blood glucose over the last 3 months HbA1c reflects long‑term glucose control.

2.75 Which of these tests requires a 24‑hour urine specimen? A. Creatinine clearance B. Glucose tolerance C. HCG detection D. Urine cytology

2.75 — A: Creatinine clearance This test requires a 24‑hour urine collection.

2.76 Which type of urine specimen is taken after eating? A. Clean catch midstream B. Pediatric C. Postprandial D. Random

2.76 — C: Postprandial Postprandial = after eating.

2.77 A doctor orders a 2‑hour PC glucose test. What does PC mean? A. After a meal B. After an operation C. Before a meal D. Before an operation

2.77 — A: After a meal PC means “post‑cibum” (after food).

2.78 Which test measures a patient’s average blood glucose level over the last two to three months? A. Blood insulin B. Glucose tolerance test C. HbA1c D. Random blood glucose test

2.78 — C: HbA1c HbA1c measures average glucose over 2–3 months.

2.79 An inpatient is eating breakfast when a phlebotomist arrives to collect a specimen for a fasting blood glucose test. What should the phlebotomist do? A. Ask the patient to vomit before taking the sample B. Ask the patient’s nurse if the specimen should still be collected C. Draw the specimen quickly before the patient finishes eating D. Give the patient insulin to counteract the food

2.79 — B: Ask the patient’s nurse if the specimen should still be collected A fasting sample cannot be collected after eating without clinical approval.

2.80 Which additive is preferred for collecting blood culture specimens? A. Citrate phosphate dextrose B. Potassium oxalate C. Sodium heparin D. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

2.80 — D: Sodium polyanethol sulfonate SPS is the preferred additive for blood culture bottles.

2.81 How many bottles are drawn for a blood culture set? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

2.81 — B: 2 A standard blood culture set includes aerobic and anaerobic bottles.

2.82 What do C and T mean on a pregnancy test? A. Clarity and time B. Colour and temperature C. Consistency and translucency D. Control and test

2.82 — D: Control and test C = control line; T = test line.

2.83 You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You collect the fasting specimen at 8:10 am. You give the patient the glucose drink at 8:13 am. He finishes the drink at 8:18 am. When should you collect the 1‑hour specimen? 1. 9:10 am 2. 9:13 am 3. 9:15 am

2.83 — D: 9:18 am Timing begins when the patient finishes the drink.

2.84 Glucose point‑of‑care testing screens for: A. Glycemia B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycolysis D. Glycosuria

2.84 — A: Glycemia POC glucose testing screens for blood glucose levels.

2.85 To one decimal place, what is a glucose value of 91 mg/dL in mmol/L? A. 5.1 B. 6.2 C. 7.3 D. 8.4

2.85 — A: 5.1 mmol/L 91 mg/dL ÷ 18 ≈ 5.1 mmol/L.

2.86 Specimens containing the smallpox virus must be transported as: A. Category A B. Category B C. Class 1 D. Class 2

2.86 — A: Category A Smallpox specimens are Category A: high‑risk infectious substances.

2.87 What does the UN packaging code 4G mean? A. Fibreboard box B. Glass bottle C. Plastic bag D. Steel drum

2.87 — A: Fibreboard box 4G = fibreboard box packaging.

2.88 Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens? A. Immunoelectrophoresis B. Ouchterlony double diffusion C. Radioimmunoassay D. Western blot

2.88 — C: Radioimmunoassay RIA uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens.

2.89 Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin? A. Renin B. Secretin C. Serotonin D. Thrombin

2.89 — D: Thrombin Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

2.90 Formed elements in blood include which of the following? A. Electrolytes B. Fibrinogen C. Plasma proteins D. White blood cells

2.90 — D: White blood cells Formed elements include RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.

2.91 Which of these is NOT a type of white blood cell? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Erythrocyte D. Neutrophil

2.91 — C: Erythrocyte Erythrocytes are red blood cells, not WBCs.

2.92 Which of these is a liver function test? A. AST test B. Creatine kinase test C. Creatinine test D. Troponin test

2.92 — A: AST test AST is a liver function test.

2.93 What is a nosocomial infection? A. A hospital‑acquired infection B. A nose infection C. A pneumococcal infection D. A throat infection

2.93 — A: A hospital‑acquired infection Nosocomial infections originate in a healthcare setting.

3.1 Which of these glass types has the strongest resistance to heat? A. Borosilicate B. Crystal C. Optical D. Soda lime

3.1 — A: Borosilicate Borosilicate glass has excellent heat resistance due to its low thermal expansion, making it ideal for laboratory heating applications.

3.2 Which chemical is added to formalin as a buffer? A. Half normal saline B. Iodine C. Methanol D. Sodium phosphate

3.2 — D: Sodium phosphate Sodium phosphate is added to formalin as a buffer to maintain a stable pH during fixation.

3.3 How much of formalin is formaldehyde? A. 3.7–4.0% B. 10% C. 37–40% D. 77–80%

3.3 — C: 37–40% Commercial formalin contains 37–40% formaldehyde, which is then diluted to make 10% neutral buffered formalin.

3.4 During fixation, why does formalin need to be buffered? A. To inactivate cellular enzymes B. To keep the tissue dehydrated C. To maintain a neutral pH D. To prevent cells from bursting

3.4 — C: To maintain a neutral pH Unbuffered formalin becomes acidic over time, which can cause formalin pigment and tissue damage. Buffering keeps the pH neutral.

3.5 What is the purpose of fixation? A. To make the tissue transparent B. To prevent cell death C. To prevent water loss D. To stop the tissue from deteriorating

3.5 — D: To stop the tissue from deteriorating Fixation halts autolysis and putrefaction, preserving tissue structure for microscopic examination.

3.6 Picric acid fixatives such as Bouin’s fixative give tissue which colour? A. Blue B. Green C. Orange D. Yellow

3.6 — D: Yellow Picric acid fixatives (e.g., Bouin’s) leave tissues with a yellow coloration due to picrate binding.

3.7 In tissue processing for paraffin sections, which step comes after dehydration? A. Clearing B. Decalcification C. Embedding D. Staining

3.7 — A: Clearing After dehydration, tissues are placed in a clearing agent (e.g., xylene) to make them miscible with paraffin wax.

3.8 What is the most common clearing agent? A. Aniline oil B. Cedarwood oil C. Oil of wintergreen D. Xylene

3.8 — D: Xylene Xylene is the most common clearing agent because it rapidly replaces alcohol and mixes well with paraffin.

3.9 Why are tissues dehydrated before embedding? A. Because wax is hydrophobic B. To make the tissue transparent C. To remove calcium ions from the specimen D. To stop autolysis and putrefaction

3.9 — A: Because wax is hydrophobic Paraffin wax cannot penetrate water; tissues must be fully dehydrated before wax infiltration.

3.10 If paraffin is not infiltrated properly, the tissue will: A. Become soft and crumbly B. Become too hard to cut properly C. Liquefy D. Lose its colour

3.10 — A: Become soft and crumbly Poor paraffin infiltration results in poor support, causing sections to crumble or tear during microtomy.

3.11 Which microtome is used to prepare tissue sections for electron microscopy? A. Cryostat B. Rotary microtome C. Sledge microtome D. Ultramicrotome

3.11 — D: Ultramicrotome Ultramicrotomes cut ultra‑thin sections (50–100 nm) required for electron microscopy.

3.12 A lab technician has cut a ribbon of sections from a tissue block. What should the technician do next? A. Add a few drops of a softening agent B. Float the sections on warm water C. Leave the sections in a freezer for an hour D. Submerge the sections in ethanol

3.12 — B: Float the sections on warm water Warm water relaxes and spreads the ribbon, allowing wrinkles to flatten before mounting on slides.

3.13 At which of these pH levels is Alcian blue solution used? A. 2.5 B. 4.5 C. 6.5 D. 8.5

3.13 — A: 2.5 Alcian blue at pH 2.5 stains both sulfated and carboxylated acidic mucins.

3.14 What colour is acid fuchsin? A. Black B. Green C. Orange D. Red

3.14 — D: Red Acid fuchsin is a red dye commonly used in trichrome stains.

3.15 What colour are red blood cells after Giemsa staining? A. Dark blue B. Pale blue C. Pale pink D. Violet

3.15 — C: Pale pink In Giemsa staining, RBCs appear pale pink due to eosin affinity.

3.16 Masson’s trichrome staining stains muscle fibres which colour? A. Black B. Green C. Pink D. Red

3.16 — D: Red Masson’s trichrome stains muscle fibers red, collagen blue/green, and nuclei black.

3.17 Which stain is used to stain lipids? A. Gram’s stain B. H&E C. Periodic Acid Schiff D. Sudan IV

3.17 — D: Sudan IV Sudan IV is a lipid‑soluble dye used to stain fats in frozen sections.

3.18 Which stain is used to stain glycogen? A. Gram’s stain B. H&E C. Periodic Acid Schiff D. Sudan IV

3.18 — C: Periodic Acid Schiff PAS stains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides, and basement membranes magenta.

3.19 Alcian blue stains what part of goblet cells? A. DNA B. Golgi apparatus C. Mucins D. RNA

3.19 — C: Mucins Alcian blue binds to acidic mucins in goblet cells, staining them blue.

3.20 ________ staining is the process of staining living cells that have been removed from the body. A. Gram B. In vivo C. Positive D. Supravital

3.20 — D: Supravital Supravital staining colors living cells removed from the body, such as reticulocyte staining.

3.21 What is the counterstain in Gram’s technique? A. Acetone alcohol B. Crystal violet C. Iodine D. Safranin

3.21 — D: Safranin Safranin is the counterstain in Gram staining, coloring Gram‑negative bacteria red/pink.

3.22 The most common mordant for H&E staining is: A. Alcian blue B. Alum C. Eosin D. Sodium metabisulphite

3.22 — B: Alum Alum is the most common mordant for hematoxylin in H&E staining, helping hematoxylin bind to nuclear chromatin.

3.23 What are the two dyes in the Romanowsky stain? A. Carbol fuchsin and methylene blue B. Crystal violet and carbol fuchsin C. Crystal violet and safranin D. Methylene blue and eosin

3.23 — D: Methylene blue and eosin Romanowsky stains use methylene blue (basic dye) and eosin (acidic dye) to produce characteristic purple hues.

3.24 What is the decolourizer in H&E staining? A. Acid alcohol B. Eosin C. Orange G D. Peroxide

3.24 — A: Acid alcohol Acid alcohol removes excess hematoxylin during differentiation in H&E staining.

3.25 Which type of bacteria does the Ziehl‑Neelsen stain identify? A. Acid fast B. Facultative anaerobic C. Gram negative D. Spore forming

3.25 — A: Acid fast The Ziehl–Neelsen stain identifies acid‑fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium species.

3.26 What is the goal of streaking an agar plate? A. To accelerate the solidification of the agar medium B. To determine if the bacteria can ferment glucose, sucrose, and/or lactose C. To determine the number of organisms in the sample D. To produce isolated colonies for further study

3.26 — D: To produce isolated colonies for further study Streaking dilutes bacteria across the plate to obtain isolated colonies for identification.

3.27 What is the sequence of steps for Gram staining? A. Stain, decolourizing, counterstain, mordant B. Counterstain, stain, decolourizing, mordant C. Stain, mordant, decolourizing, counterstain D. Mordant, stain, counterstain, decolourizing

3.27 — C: Stain, mordant, decolourizing, counterstain The correct Gram stain sequence is: 1. Crystal violet (stain) 2. Iodine (mordant) 3. Alcohol/acetone (decolorizer) 4. Safranin (counterstain)

3.28 When setting up erythrocyte sedimentation rates, take care to ensure: A. A fasting specimen is used B. The ESR tubes are vertical C. The sample is completely thawed D. The water bath is exactly 37°C

3.28 — B: The ESR tubes are vertical ESR tubes must be perfectly vertical to ensure accurate sedimentation rates.

3.29 Immunology tests are based on the reaction of: A. Acids and bases B. Antigens and antibodies C. Lysing agents and red blood cells D. Proteins and salicylic acid

3.29 — B: Antigens and antibodies Immunology tests rely on antigen–antibody reactions, forming the basis of serologic testing.

4.1: If 0.2 mL of a sample is added to 5 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor? A: 4.8 B: 5.2 C: 25 D: 26

4.1 — D: 26 Explanation: Dilution factor = final volume ÷ sample volume Final volume = 5 mL + 0.2 mL = 5.2 mL Dilution factor = 5.2 ÷ 0.2 = 26

4.2: A lab technician requires 400 mL of a 3% solution but has only a 5% solution available. How would the lab technician prepare the 3% solution? A: Mix 240 mL of the 5% solution with 160 mL of diluent B: Mix 300 mL of the 5% solution with 100 mL of diluent C: Mix 360 mL of the 5% solution with 40 mL of diluent D: Mix 380 mL of the 5% solution with 20 mL of diluent

4.2 — A: Mix 240 mL of the 5% solution with 160 mL of diluent Explanation: Use mL of 5% Total volume needed = 400 mL → diluent = 400 − 240 = 160 mL

4.3: A lab technician has a litre bottle of 90% alcohol. The technician needs a 100 mL solution of 70% alcohol. To make the required solution, the lab technician must mix ___ mL of the 90% alcohol with ___ mL of water. A: 66.6, 33.4 B: 77.8, 22.2 C: 84.5, 15.5 D: 90.0, 10.0

4.3 — B: 77.8 mL alcohol, 22.2 mL water Explanation: mL of 90% Water = 100 − 77.8 = 22.2 mL

4.4: How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 300 mL of a 2% m/v solution? A: 2 B: 4 C: 6 D: 20

4.4 — C: 6 g Explanation: 2% m/v = 2 g per 100 mL For 300 mL.

4.5: A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a: A: Analytical balance B: Desiccator C: pH meter D: Single pan balance

4.5 — A: Analytical balance Explanation: An analytical balance is used for precise measurement of small masses, such as 1.26 g.

4.6: In a pH meter, the reference electrode typically contains a saturated solution of: A: Ethanol B: Hydrochloric acid C: Potassium chloride D: Sulfuric acid

4.6 — C: Potassium chloride Explanation: Reference electrodes in pH meters typically contain saturated KCl, providing a stable reference potential.

5.1: What term means everyone in a group agreeing to a solution, even if it's not their ideal choice? A: Authority B: Consensus C: Majority vote D: Railroading

5.1 — B: Consensus Consensus means the group agrees on a solution even if it isn’t everyone’s first choice.

5.2: Which of these is a barrier to effective communication? A: A clear message B: Background noise C: Emotional intelligence D: Eye contact

5.2 — B: Background noise Noise interferes with hearing and understanding, making it a communication barrier.

5.3: Pronouncing words clearly is called: A: Articulation B: Emphasis C: Intonation D: Modulation

5.3 — A: Articulation Articulation is the clear, precise pronunciation of words.

5.4: Which of these is an example of non‑verbal communication? A: Asking a patient to confirm her name B: Nodding to show you agree with someone C: Saying “No” to a patient D: Writing a note to your manager

5.4 — B: Nodding to show you agree with someone Nodding is a form of non‑verbal communication that conveys agreement.

5.5: Sitting with your arms crossed conveys: A: Concern B: Interest C: Resistance D: Sincerity

5.5 — C: Resistance Crossed arms often signal defensiveness, discomfort, or resistance.

5.6: Email, telephone, and videoconferencing are all examples of which part of the communication cycle? A: Channel B: Message C: Receiver D: Sender

5.6 — A: Channel Email, phone, and video are communication channels—the pathways messages travel through.

5.7: Which of these is proper phone etiquette? A: Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone B: Leaving the caller on hold for a long time C: Multitasking while listening to the caller D: Speaking quickly

5.7 — A: Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone Proper etiquette ensures the caller knows who they’re speaking with immediately.

5.8: When answering the phone, you should state your name and: A: “How are you today?” B: The name of your facility C: Your facility’s opening hours D: Your phone number

5.8 — B: The name of your facility Standard practice is to state your name + facility name when answering.

5.9: What would be the first and most appropriate thing to say if a patient refuses an ECG? A: “Don’t worry; it takes only a few seconds.” B: “I will have to report your refusal to my supervisor.” C: “Will you tell me why you don’t want to have an ECG?” D: “Your doctor has ordered this test, and it must be done.”

5.9 — C: “Will you tell me why you don’t want to have an ECG?” This response opens dialogue, shows respect, and helps address concerns.

6.1: According to the Pareto principle, roughly ___ of effects come from ___ of causes. A: 60%, 40% B: 70%, 30% C: 80%, 20% D: 90%, 10%

6.1 C: 80%, 20% Pareto principle: 80% of effects come from 20% of causes.

6.2: Precise values: A: Are caused by random errors B: Are close to the true value C: Are the same as the true value D: Fall within a narrow range

6.2 D: Fall within a narrow range Precision = closeness of repeated values to each other.

6.3: What inventory model uses cards, bins, or other visual cues to signal when items need replenishing? A: Just‑in‑time B: Kanban C: Min‑max D: Safety stock model

6.3 B: Kanban Uses cards/bins as visual signals for replenishment.

6.4: A rectangle shape on a workflow diagram indicates: A: Decision B: Manual input C: Process D: Start/stop point

6.4 C: Process Rectangles represent process steps in workflow diagrams.

6.5: Which ISO is the standard for risk management specifically in medical laboratories? A: ISO 15190 B: ISO 22367 C: ISO 22870 D: ISO 31000

6.5 B: ISO 22367 Risk management standard specific to medical laboratories.

6.6: Which of these actions would increase a laboratory’s efficiency? A: Finding ways to increase the time it takes to perform key tasks B: Storing frequently used equipment in easy‑to‑reach places C: Using an inconsistent labelling system D: Using paper files instead of digital files

6.6 B: Storing frequently used equipment in easy‑to‑reach places Reduces wasted time and increases efficiency.

7.1: Which of these is a sign that a patient is stressed? A: Willingness to do as you ask B: Crying C: Constricted pupils D: Eye contact

7.1 B: Crying is a common sign of fear, stress, or emotional distress.

7.2: The knowledge, skill, ability, or characteristic associated with high performance on a job, such as problem‑solving, analytical thinking, or leadership, is called: A: Competency B: Human resource training C: Performance development D: Work ethic

7.2 A: Competency includes the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for high performance.

7.3: Patient personal information: A: May be discussed during coffee breaks B: May be discussed with family members C: May be discussed with other patients D: Must never be discussed outside the hospital

7.3 D: Must never be discussed outside the hospital Patient information is confidential and protected.

7.4: A lab assistant overhears two clinicians talking about a patient. What kind of risk is this? A: Accountability B: Infection C: Privacy D: Security

7.4 C: Privacy Overhearing patient information is a privacy risk.

7.5: What does the autonomy principle of bioethics mean? A: Self‑awareness B: Self‑governance C: Self‑promotion D: Selfishness

7.5 B: Self‑governance Autonomy = the patient’s right to make their own healthcare decisions.

7.6: The duty to “do no harm” is also referred to as: A: Autonomy B: Beneficence C: Justice D: Non‑maleficence

7.6 D: Non‑maleficence “Do no harm” is the core of non‑maleficence.

7.7: Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must be able to explain why they are collecting personal information? A: Accuracy B: Challenging compliance C: Identifying purposes D: Limiting use, disclosure, and retention

7.7 C: Identifying purposes Organizations must explain why personal information is being collected.

7.8: In 1984, the Canada Health Act was passed, combining two previous federal acts addressing hospital and physician services. Which were the two acts? A: Privacy Act and Access to Health Information Act B: Privacy Act and Department of Health Act C: The Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic Services Act and the Medical Care Act D: The Medical Care Act and the Department of Health Act

7.8 C: The Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic Services Act and the Medical Care Act These two acts were combined to form the Canada Health Act.

7.9: In Canada, a medical laboratory assistant is a skill level B occupation. What is a skill level B occupation? A: A labour job that usually gives on‑the‑job training B: A professional job that usually calls for a university degree C: A technical job or skilled trade that usually calls for a college diploma or training as an apprentice D: An intermediate job that usually calls for high school and/or job‑specific training

7.9 C: A technical job or skilled trade that usually calls for a college diploma or apprenticeship training Skill level B includes technical and skilled occupations such as MLAs.

8.1: Which of these status designations has the same priority as Stat? A: Med Emerg B: Postop C: Preop D: Timed

8.1 A: Med Emerg “Medical emergency” has the same priority as STAT.

8.2: You have to collect specimens from three patients. The specimens are routine, preop, and fasting. What is the correct order of priority for collecting these specimens? A: Fasting, Preop, Routine B: Fasting, Routine, Preop C: Preop, Fasting, Routine D: Routine, Fasting, Preop

8.2 C: Preop, Fasting, Routine Preop → highest priority; fasting → next; routine → last.

8.3: What is meant by a dynamic environment? A: An environment high in toxic fumes B: An environment that changes quickly C: An environment with a high risk of electrical shock D: An environment with many people

8.3 B: An environment that changes quickly A dynamic environment is fast‑changing and unpredictable.

8.4: You are performing a rapid strep test on an eight‑year‑old girl. However, when you try to swab the back of her throat, she refuses to open her mouth. She says the swab scares her. What should you do? A: Force the swab into her mouth B: Scold her for behaving badly C: Swab her nose instead D: Talk to her about the test

8.4 D: Talk to her about the test Address her fear, explain the procedure, and reassure her.

8.5: A patient arrives for an oral glucose tolerance test. She says she ate a few biscuits before coming to the test. What should you do? A: Arrange for the test to be rescheduled for another day B: Have her walk around to use up the sugar from the biscuits C: Start the test as the biscuits will not matter D: Wait an hour to ensure all the sugar is out of her bloodstream

8.5 A: Arrange for the test to be rescheduled for another day OGTT requires strict fasting; the test cannot proceed.