1.1 The TLV-C is the concentration of a substance that: a) a worker can be exposed to for one hour without adverse effect b) a worker can be exposed to over a working lifetime without adverse effects c) a worker can be exposed to up to 4 times per day d) should never be exceeded

D: Should never be exceeded. TLV-C stands for Threshold Limit Value Ceiling Limit. It is the exposure limit that should not be exceeded at any time.

1.2 When trying to fix an electrical machine, your first. action should be to: a) replace any old cables b) replace the fuses c) turn off all electricity to the lab d) turn the machine off

D: Turn the machine off. Before trying to fix electrical equipment, you should turn the equipment off to avoid the risk of electric shock.

1.3 How should you pick up an item of hot glassware? a) By pouring cold water on it to cool it down b) With a rag or paper towels c) With tongs d) With your hands

C: With tongs.

1.4 Which of the following should be observed during the incineration of medical waste? a) Disinfect all articles before burning them b) Make sure complete burning takes place c) Make sure the temperature reaches at least 12,000°C d) Sanitize all articles before burning them

B: Make sure complete burning takes place. Medical waste must be completely burned during incineration. Incomplete burning can release harmful pollutants and pathogens into the environment.

1.5 Used needles should be discarded in: a) a biohazard sharps container b) a glass disposal bucket c) a glass recycling bin d) the regular garbage

A: A biohazard sharps container. Use needles should be discarded in a sharps disposal container to reduce the risk of needle stick injuries.

1.6 Class B fires occur with: a) electrical equipment b) flammable liquids c) ordinary combustibles d) reactive metals

B: Flammable liquids. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials, such as cloth, wood, paper, rubber, and plastics. Class B fires involve flammable liquids or flammable gases. Class C fires involve electrical equipment. Class D fires involve certain flammable metallic substances such as sodium and potassium.

1.7 Mercury: a) forms a toxic vapour at room temperature b) forms an explosive precipitate on standing c) may be discarded down the sink with an abundance of running tap water following it. d) may be discarded in a general waste bin

A: Forms a toxic vapour at room temperature.

1.8 Which of these is a good practice when working with strong acids? a) Wear eye protection b) Wear latex gloves c) Wear open-toed shoes d) When mixing acid and water, always add the water to the acid, not the other way around

A: Wear eye protection. Latex gloves are not acid-resistant and are therefore not recommended when working with acids. Adding water to acid is dangerous because it can make the acid boil violently.

1.9 What is the term for chemicals that burn or destroy tissue? a) Acyclic b) Caustic c) Galvanic d) Stereogenic

B: Caustic.

1.10 When mixing acid and water: a) add the acid quickly to the water b) add the acid slowly to the water c) add the water quickly to the acid d) add the water slowly to the acid

B: Add the acid slowly to the water. When you mix acid with water, it's important to add the acid to the water rather than the other way around. This is because if you add water to acid, you form an extremely concentrated solution of acid initially and the solution may boil very violently, splashing concentrated acid. In addition, you should add the acid slowly, not quickly. Otherwise, you could spill it.

1.11 If a chemical produces harmful vapours, it should be used in a: a) autoclave b) biological safety cabinet c) fume hood d) sealed room

C: Fume hood. The best way to limit exposure to chemical vapours in the laboratory is with a fume hood. A fume hood is a ventilated enclosure that captures and removes vapours.

1.12 What is the term for chemicals that cause birth defects in embryos and fetuses? a) Carcinogens b) Corrosives c) Phenyls d) Teratogens

D: Teratogens.

1.13 In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn? a) During blood collections b) During reagent and specimen preparation c) While inspecting reagent supplies d) While transporting scaled waste containers

B: During reagent and specimen preparation. Safety goggles must be worn when handling reagents and specimens. Goggles help to protect the eyes from chemicals, biological materials, or other dangerous substances. Safety goggles are not typically required for blood collections, as there is little to no risk of blood splashing, safety goggles are generally not necessary to inspect inventory. Safety goggles would not be needed to carry waste containers that are sealed.

1.14 What does this pictogram mean? a) Biohazard b) Carcinogenic c) Corrosive d) Toxic

D: Toxic. The skull-and-crossbones symbol is a warning of a toxic substance.

1.15 Always keep picric acid: a) dry b) next to a window c) refrigerated d) wet

D: Wet. Never let picric acid dry out. When dry, picric acid can form unstable crystals that can explode.

1.16 Which of these factors is NOT considered when storing chemicals? a) Light sensitivity b) Heat sensitivity c) Explosive properties d) Solubility

D: Solubility.

1.17 Which of these chemicals would be the best choice to neutralize a weak acid spill in the laboratory? a) Acetic acid b) Boric acid c) Sodium bicarbonate d) Sodium hydroxide

C: Sodium bicarbonate. Weak acid spills should be neutralized with sodium bicarbonate (which is a weak base) and then cleaned up with a paper towel. Sodium hydroxide, like sodium bicarbonate, is an alkaline and therefore also neutralizes acids. However, sodium hydroxide is a very strong alkaline and could cause injury. Therefore sodium hydroxide should not be used to neutralize acid spills. Weak bases like sodium bicarbonate are safer.

1.18 Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops? a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 50%

A: 0.1. Benchtops and other potentially contaminated surfaces should be wiped with 10% bleach after working with infectious agents or clinical specimens. After disinfection with 10% bleach, the surface must then be wiped down with 70% isopropyl or ethyl alcohol to inactivate the bleach and prevent corrosion of the work surface.

1.19 Where should sterilization indicators be placed in an autoclave? a) Close to the air exhaust valve b) In the center of each article c) On the bottom shelf of the autoclave d) On the outside of each pack

B: In the center of each article.

1.20 What type of filter do biological safety cabinets use to remove airborne particles, such as bacteria and viruses? a) Electrostatic b) Fiberglass c) HEPA d) UV light

C: HEPA. Biological safety cabinets generally use high-efficiency particulate air (IIEPA: filters. These filters are highly effective at removing 99.99% of airborne particles, including most bacteria, viruses, and other biological agents.

1.21 On fume hoods where sashes open vertically, you should work with the hood sash in the a) highest possible b) lowest possible c) middle d) most comfortable position.

B: Lowest possible. On hoods where sashes open vertically, you should work with the hood sash in the lowest possible position (this is generally elbow height. Never work with the sash in the fully open position.)

1.22 Class 7 materials in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act are: a) corrosive b) flammable or combustible c) poisonous or infectious d) radioactive

D: Radioactive.

1.23 Infectious substances are part of which class in the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act? a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

D: 6

2.1 Agglutination is the: a) breakdown of gluten b) clumping together of blood cells c) decrease in red cell pigment d) swelling of a vein

B: Clumping together of blood cells.

2.2 Motor neurons are also called a) afferent b) association c) efferent d) nervous

C: Efferent.

2.3 Glycolysis is the breakdown of: a) glucose b) glycogen c) glucagon d) glycerol neurons.

A: Glucose. Glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose into energy.

2.4 Which plane separates the body into upper and lower parts? a) Frontal b) Oblique c) Sagittal d) Transverse

D: Transverse. Transverse planes travel across the body horizontally, dividing it into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) parts. The transverse plane is the only type of horizontal plane.

2.5 Which prefix means break down, destruction, or dissolving? a) Andr- b) Dys- c) Hydr- d) Lys-

D: Lys-. Examples of words with the prefix lys- are lysozyme (an enzyme that kills bacteria by breaking down their cell walls) and hemolysis (the destruction of red blood cells).

2.6 What does GTT stand for? a) Genetic test b) Glucose tolerance test c) Guanine-thymine test d) Guaranteed time and temperature

B: Glucose tolerance test.

2.7 BT and CT stand for: a) bile test and culture test b) bleeding time and clotting time c) blood test and clotting test d) blood tube and clot tube

B: Bleeding time and clotting time. Bleeding time (BT) and clotting time (CT) are tests used to detect occult hemostatic disorders.

2.8 In the context of healthcare, what does CBC stand for? a) Center for blood care b) Center for blood control c) Complete blood count d) Complete blood culture

C: Complete blood count. A complete blood count (CBC: is a test that counts the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in a blood sample.

2.9 What is the medical term for swelling caused by fluid trapped in the body's tissues? a) Edema b) Hemoconcentration c) Icterus d) Syncope

A: Edema. Icterus is incorrect because it is the technical word for jaundice (yellow skin). Syncope is incorrect because it is the medical word for fainting.

2.11 The three major groups of plasma proteins are: a) albumin, fibrinogen, globulin b) albumin, globulin, hemoglobin c) fibrin, globulin, albumin d) insulin, glucagon, hemoglobin

A: Albumin, fibrinogen, globulin.

2.12 Lipase breaks down: a) enzymes b) fats c) proteins d) red blood cells

B: Fats.

2.13 When a blood vessel is damaged, what is the first process that occurs? a) Coagulation b) Hemolysis c) Platelet plug formation d) Vasoconstriction

D: Vasoconstriction. When a blood vessel is damaged, three steps occur: vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, and coagulation.

2.14 Which disease is associated with low levels of cortisol and aldosterone? a) Addison's disease b) Cushing's syndrome c) Graves' disease d) Guillain-Barre syndrome

A: Addison's disease. Addison's disease, also called adrenal insufficiency, is an illness where the body makes too little cortisol and aldosterone. The most common cause of Addison's disease is when the body's own immune system attacks the adrenal glands, which are the part of the body that produce cortisol and aldosterone. Cushing's syndrome, in contrast, is associated with high levels of cortisol.

2.15 Formed elements are: a) blood plasına b) blood serum c) the clotting factors in blood d) white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets

D: White blood cells, red blood cells and platelets. The formed elements are the cells in the blood. The three classes of formed elements are red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

2.16 Graves' disease is characterized by increased secretion of which hormone? a) Cortisol b) Melatonin c) Serotonin d) Thyroxine

D: Thyroxine. Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder caused by an overactive thyroid. It is characterized by an abnormally large thyroid and increased thyroxine secretion (T4).

2.17 The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the: a) alimentary tract b) esophagus c) large intestine d) small intestine

A: Alimentary tract.

2.18 from the left atrium, blood next flows into the: a) aorta b) left lung c) left ventricle d) right atrium

C: Left ventricle.

2.19 What is the top layer of skin called? a) Dermis b) Epiderinis c) Hypodermis d) The subcutaneous fat layer

B: Epidermis. The top layer of skin is called the epidermis. The layer under the epidermis is called the dermis. The layer under the dermis is called the hypodermis (also called the subcutis or subcutaneous fat layer).

2.20 Which body systein is associated with meningitis? a) Digestive b) Endocrine c) Nervous d) Urinary

C: Nervous. Meningitis is an infection of the nervous system, specifically the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord,.

2.21 Hypotension and arteriosclerosis are diseases of which body system? a) Cardiovascular b) Endocrine c) Genitourinary d) Integumentary

A: Cardiovascular.

2.22 Which organ system detects changes to the internal and external environments of the body and directs a response? a) Circulatory b) Endocrine c) Nervous d) Respiratory

C: Nervous. The nervous system is comprised of special cells called neurons, the brain, the spinal cord, the brain and spinal cord coverings, and spinal and brain fluid. It detects changes and coordinates a response as needed.

2.23 Which organ balances sodium and potassium in the body? a) Bladder b) Kiduey c) Lungs d) Stomach

B: Kidney.

2.24 In the image below, which organ is the line pointing to? a) Bladder b) Liver c) Pancreas d) Stomach

B: Liver.

2.25 The main task of red blood cells is to: a) ensure hemostasis b) provide immunity c) stop bleeding by forming a clot over injuries d) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

D: Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

2.20 Platelets: a) are also known as antithrombins b) are enzymes c) convert prothrombin to thrombin d) form a plug in the hole of damaged blood vessels

D: Form a plug in the hole of damaged blood vessels.

2.27 A reticulocyte is: a) a mature red blood cell b) an immature erythrocyte c) found only in the bone marrow d) part of the reticuloendothelial system

B: An immature erythrocyte.

2.28 The liquid part of blood containing fibrinogen is called: a) heparin b) plasma c) scrum d) whole blood

B: Plasma.

2.29 A specimen must be transported at body temperature plus or minus 5°F. Which of these temperatures is within that range? a) 25°F b) 50°F c) 75°F d) 100°F

D: 100°F. Normal body temperature is around 98°F. A range of plus or minus 5°F around normal body temperature would be 93 to 103°F.

2.30 When giving specimens for culture and sensitivity, the patient should: a) be off antibiotics for several days before collection b) come to the lab first thing in the morning c) fast for 12 to 14 hours d) have all x-rays done before collection

A: Be off antibiotics for several days before collection. When giving specimens for Culture and Sensitivity, it is important for the patient to be off antibiotics for a period of time before the specimen is collected. This is because antibiotics can interfere with the growth of bacteria or other microorganisms in the culture, which can lead to false-negative results.

2.31 Which of these tests can detect heterophile antibodies? n) ABO typing b) Indirect antiglobulin test. c) Mononucleosis test. d) Rh and antibody screen

C: Mononucleosis test. The mononucleosis test detects heterophile antibodies produced in response to the Epstein-Barr virus, the virus that causes mononucleosis.

2.32 Which of these is needed for a malaria test? a) Capillary tube b) Clay sealant c) Glass slide d) Microhematocrit tube

C: Glass slide. The malaria test requires a drop of blood on a glass slide. The slide is then stained and examined under a microscope.

2.33 Hepatitis A: a) can be cured with antibiotics b) has no vaccine to prevent it c) is the most common type of hepatitis d) primarily infects the liver

D: Primarily infects the liver. Hepatitis A primarily infects the liver. The most common type of hepatitis in most countries is hepatitis C. This is because hepatitis C does not have a vaccine.

2.34 A buffy coat forms when: a) an SST is left to rest for 24 hours b) whole anticongulated blood is centrifuged c) whole blood is left to rest for 24 hours d) whole coagulated blood is centrifuged

B: Whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged.

2.35 A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge? a) Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube b) Add washed sensitized cells to the tube c) Remove gloves and wash hands d) Seal one end of the tube with clay

D: Seal one end of the tube with clay. The microhematocrit test requires the end of the tube to be filled with clay before the tube is placed in the centrifuge.

2.36 When preparing blood smears, the spreader slide should be at what angle? a) 15 degrees b). 30 degrees c) 45 degrees d) 60 degrees

B: 30 degrees. An angle greater than 30 degrees will make the smear too thick and an angle less than 30 degrees will make the scar too thin.

2.37 What are cross-match tubes used for? a) Blood compatibility testing b) Coagulation studies c) Glucose tests d) Trace element studies

A: Blood compatibility testing. Cross-match tubes are used for blood compatibility testing. The purpose of blood compatibility testing is to identify potential incompatibilities between the donor and recipient before blood transfusions.

2.38 Which anticoagulant is used for blood gas tests? a) EDTA b) Heparin c) Potassium oxalate d) Trisodium citrate

B: Heparin. Heparin is the anticoagulant of choice for measuring blood gases because of its minimal chelating properties, minimal interference with water, and relatively low cation concentration. Potassium EDTA is the preferred anticoagulant for hematology testing. Trisodium citrate is the preferred anticoagulant for coagulation testing.

2.39 Grey-top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant? a) Heparin b) Potassium oxalate c) SPS d) Sodium polyanethole sulfonate

B: Potassium oxalate. Grey-top tubes contain potassium oxalate as an anticoagulant.

2.40 What additive do light blue top tubes contain? a) EDTA b) Heparin c) Sodium citrate d) Sodium fluoride

C: Sodium citrate. Light blue top tubes contain sodium citrate to prevent, the blood sample from clotting.

2.41 What are lavender top tubes used for? a) Blood cultures b) Erythrocyte sedimentation rates c) Glucose determinations d) Hematology tests

D: Hematology tests. Lavender top tubes contain an anticoagulant called EDTA. This prevents blood from clotting and allows for accurate assessment of various blood cell parameters. These tests include complete blood count, differential white blood cell count, and red blood cell indices.

2.42 If a blood sample is taken in an EDTA tube, which of these test results would be affected? a) Calcium b) Cholesterol c) Glucose d) Urea

A: Calcium. EDTA tubes contain EDTA as an anticoagulant to prevent blood samples from clotting. The EDTA works by binding to calcium

without calcium, blood cannot clot. However, this also means EDTA tubes cannot be used to measure blood calcium levels because the EDTA would bind to the calcium and interfere with the results.

2.43 Sodium fluoride keeps ____________ molecules intact for three days. a) cellulite b) cellulose c) glucose d) glycerin

C: Glucose.

2.44 What vacutainer tube is used for reticulocyte counts? a) Green b) Lavender c) Light blue d) Red

B: Lavender. Lavender tubes are used for hematology tests, such as complete blood counts, platelet counts, sedimentation rate, and reticulocyte counts.

2.45 Which of these vacutainer additives provides a physical barrier to prevent glycolysis? a) EDTA b) Silica c) Sodium fluoride d) Thixotropic gel

D: Thixotropic gel.

2.46 Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen? a) EDTA tube b) Grey top c) Light-blue top d) SST

B: Grey top. The excess sodium fluoride in underfilled grey-top tubes can hemolyze the specimen.

2.47 A patient refuses to have his blood drawn. The phlebotomist threatens the patient with the needle, saying she will draw the patient's blood whether he gives consent or or not. For threatening the patient, the phlebotomist could be charged with: a) assault. b) battery c) fraud d) invasion of privacy

A: Assault. Assault involves causing someone to fear that bodily harm will come to them. For a crime of battery, physical contact inust occur.

2.48 After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that: a) the patient has diabetes b) the patient is taking an anticoagulant c) the site may bleed excessively d) the tourniquet is too tight

C: The site may bleed excessively. Tiny, nonraised red spots that appear on the patient's skin when a tourniquet is applied are called petechiae. They indicate the venipuncture site may bleed excessively. They do not indicate that the phlebotomist has performed the procedure incorrectly.

2.49 When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein? a) The antecubital fossa b) The back of the knee c) The feet d) The neck

A: The antecubital fossa. When drawing blood from obese patients, check the antecubital aren first. Obese patients often have an easily palpable median cubital vein.

2.50 A phlebotomist needs to draw an urgent blood sample from a patient who is asleep. What should the phlebotomist do? a) Cancel the test. b) Come back later when the patient is awake c) Draw the sample while the patient is asleep d) Wake up the patient

D: Wake up the patient. In this situation, you would need to wake the patient. The blood sample is urgent and needs to be collected. You should never try to collect a blood specimen from a sleeping patient: doing this would not only disregard the patient's right to informed consent but could also injure the patient if the patient wakes up suddenly during the blood draw.

2.51 Which vein is located on the thumb side of the arm? a) Cephalic b) External iliac c) Femoral d) Posterior tibial

A: Cephalic. The other veins are all veins of the leg.

2.52 In venipuncture, why must. the alcohol on the puncture site be completely dry before the phlebotomist inserts the needle into the vein? a) To ensure all pathogens are killed b) To ensure the needle doesn't slip c) To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream d) To prevent hemolysis of the specimen

D: To prevent hemolysis of the specimen. Alcohol, when wet, can hemolyze the blood sample, so you must wait until the alcohol is dry before puncturing the vein.

2.53 The veins used in the forearm for venipuncture, in order of preference: a) cephalic, median cubital, median cephalic b) median cephalic, cephalic, median cubital c) median cephalic, median cubital, cephalic d) median cubital, cephalic, medium basilic

D: Median cubital, cephalic, medium basilic.

2.54 The purpose of a tourniquet during venipuncture is to: a) decrease the oxygen level b) make the veins more prominent c) monitor blood pressure d) prevent hematoma

B: Make the veins more prominent.

2.55 After use, venipuncture needles should be: a) discarded into a sharps container b) discarded into an autoclave bag c) discarded into the garbage d) reused

A: Discarded into a sharps container.

2.56 What is the order of draw? a) An order given by a superior to draw blood from a patient b) The order blood tubes are filled c) The order blood vials are stored d) The order you select patients to draw blood from

B: The order blood tubes are filled.

2.57 Which is the standard needle gauge for routine venipuncture? a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23

B: 21

2.58 What is the best way to judge the patency of a vein? a) Feel it to determine the strength of the pulse b) Palpate above and below where you first feel it c) Press and release it several times to determine resilience d) Roll your finger from side to side while pressing against it.

C: Press and release it several times. To determine resilience A patent vein has bounce or resilience, which can be felt by pressing and releasing it several times.

2.59 Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture? a) Asking the patient to make and release a fist, several times b) Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow c) Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute d) Massaging the sito before inserting the needle

B: Asking the patient to release her fist upon blood flow. Hemoconcentration is an increase in the number of red blood cells and other large molecules in the blood. It can cause blood tests to give wrong results. Hemoconcentration can be caused by leaving the tourniquet on longer than one minute, massaging or squeezing the site, probing for veins, drawing blood from sclerosed or occluded veins, and vigorous hand pumping (making and releasing a fist). A way to help prevent hemoconcentration is to have the patient release her fist upon blood flow.

2.00 Why are gauze pads better than cotton balls for holding pressure on the puncture site after venipuncture? a) Cotton balls can stick to the puncture site b) Cotton balls contain latex which is dangerous for people with latex allergies c) Cotton balls have a higher risk of causing a compression nerve injury d) Gauze pads are more sterile

A: Cotton balls can stick to the puncture site. Pressure should be applied using a clean ganze pad instead of cotton balls. This is because fibres from cotton balls can stick to the puncture site and dislodge the platelet plug when removed.

2.61 When a blood pressure cuff is used for a venipuncture instead of a tourniquet, the pressure used must be: a) between the patient's diastolic and systolic blood pressure b) equal to the patient's systolic blood pressure c) just above the patient's systolic blood pressure d) just below the patient's diastolic blood pressure

D: Just below the patient's diastolic blood pressure.

2.62 Which part of a needle enters the skin first? a) Bevel b) Hub c) Lumen d) Shaft

A: Bevel. The bevel is the slanted or angled tip of the needle. It is the part that enters the skin first.

2.63 Which part of a needle attaches to the syringe? a) Bevel b) Hub c) Lumen d) Shaft

B: Hub. 2.64 Null.

2.65 A phlebotomist has just finished collecting blood samples from a patient. However, the phlebotomist realises she has forgotten to collect a tube. What should she do? a) Ask the patient to schedule another appointment b) Perform a second collection for the missing tube c) Redraw all the tubes d) Transfer some blood from a full tube to the empty tube

B: Perform a second collection for the missing tube. If you miss a tube, you should perform a second draw for the missing tube. There is no need to redraw all the tubes. Transferring blood between tubes is not acceptable as it may affect the test. results.

2.66 Silica in vacutainer tubes: a) accelerates clotting b) inhibits thrombin d) prevents glycolysis

A: Accelerates clotting. Silica is a clot activator. Some vacutainer tubes have silica sprayed on the inner walls of the tube to accelerate the clotting process.

2.67 There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason? a) The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid b) The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors c) To increase blood flow to the area d) To remove pathogens

A: The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid. The first drop of blood is contaminated with tissue fluid and therefore it will dilute the specimen if it is not wiped away.

2.68 What is the main reason a capillary puncture site is warmed beforehand? a) To delay clotting b) To increase blood flow c) To minimize contamination d) To reduce hemoconcentration

B: To increase blood flow.

2.69 Which sample docs a 17-hydroxycorticosteroids test require? a) 24-hour urine b) 72-hour stool c) Heparinized plasma d) Scrum

A: 24-hour urine. The 17-hydroxycorticosteroids (17-OHCS) test measures the level of 17-OHCS in the urine. 17-OHCS is formed when the body breaks down cortisol. A high level of 17-OHC'S indicates the body is producing too much cortisol, which can mean the patient has Cushing syndrome. The test requires a 24-hour urine sample.

2.70 The creatinine clearance test: a) is a liver function test b) requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection c) requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing d) requires timed blood samples to be drawn

B: Requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection. The creatinine clearance test requires both a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection. The blood sample provides creatinine level information, while the 24-hour urine collection measures creatinine excreted by the kidneys.

2.71 Urine, breath, and _____________ are used for ketone testing. a) blood b) semon c) stool d) sweat

A: Blood.

2.72 PKU tests are performed routinely on: a) HIV patients b) cancer patients c) new employees d) newborn infants

D: Newborn infants. Phonylketonuria (PKU) is a rare but potentially serious disorder. Babies are usually tested for PKU at around live days old. The test involves pricking the baby's heel to collect drops of blood.

2.73 Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation? a) Blood culture b) Cross-match c) Drug screen d) TDM

C: Drug screen. Chain of custody is recommended whenever there is a risk a sample could be tampered with and the test results have legal consequences. An example is a drug screen. Drug screens are sometimes used by companies to test employees for illegal drug use. Drug screens are also used by sporting bodies to test athletes for performance-enhancing drugs. In these cases, the testing specimen may require chain-of-custody documentation to prove the sample was not tampered with.

2.74 Which reagent tablet tests for glucose? a) Acetest b) Clinitest c) Ictotest d) TCA

B: Clinitest. The Clinitest detects reducing substances (usually glucose) in urine. The other answers are wrong because they detect other substances. The Acetest detects ketones in urine and other fluids. The Ictotest detects bilirubin in urine. The Tricyclic Antidepressant Screen (TCA: detects tricyclic antidepressants in urine and blood.

2.75 A patient tests positive for bilirubin on a urine strip. Which test can rule out a false positive result? a) Acetest b) Clinitest c) Ictotest d) SSA

C: Ictotest. In some situations, urine strips can show a false positive for bilirubin. The lctotest is a confirmatory test that can rule out a false positive result.

2.76 Midstream urine samples are most often used for: a) culture and susceptibility b) mononucleosis testing c) pregnancy testing d) routine urinalysis

A: Culture and susceptibility. Midstream urine samples are primarily used to look for infection.

2.77 What preservative is needed for a sodium 24-hour urine test? a) Chlorhexidine b) HCI c) NaHCO3 d) No preservative

D: No preservativo. Preservatives are not necessary for measuring sodium in urine.

2.78 Which type of urine specimen requires the patient to urinate a small amount into the toilet, stop urinating, and then start urinating again into a sterile cup? n) 24-hour b) Clean-catch c) Randoin d) Timed

B: Clean-catchi. The type of urine specimen that requires the patient to urinato a small amount into the toilet, stop urinating, and then start urinating again into a sterile cup is called a clean catch or midstream urine specimen. Because the first part of the urine stream often contains bacteria from the urethra and surrounding aren, discarding the first portion of urine gives a more accurate picture of the urine in the bladder.

2.79 Urine samples for culture should be collected in: a) containers cleaned with disinfectant b) containers containing an anticoagulant. c) narrow-mouthed containers d) sterile containers

D: Sterile containers.

2.80 What is the initial screening test for Cushing syndrome? a) C-reactive protein test. b) Comprehensive metabolic panel c) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate d) Urinary free cortisol test.

D: Urinary free cortisol test. There are three tests for Cushing syndrome: 24-hour urinary free cortisol test, 1-mg dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol test. Of these, the 24-hour urinary free cortisol is usually performed first when Cushing syndrome is suspected. This test measures the amount of free (unbounD: cortisol in a 24-hour urine collection. Cushing syndrome causes excessive levels of cortisol, so a high result on this test may indicate Cushing syndrome.

2.81 Which of these chemicals is used to preserve urine samples for microbiology? a) Ammonia b) Boric acid c) Calcium hydroxide d) Potassium hydroxide

B: Boric acid. The commonly used urine preservatives include boric acid, hydrochloric acid, acetic acid, and oxalic acid.

2.82 Which of these statements is true about 24-hour urine collections? a) If the container contains a preservative, then the preservative must be thrown away b) If the patient leaves their house, they should take the container with them c) Night-time specimens are discarded d) The patient should keep the container in a warm place

B: If the patient leaves their house, they should take the container with them.

2.83 What is the glycosylated hemoglobin test also known as? a) Fasting plasma glucose test b) Glucose tolerance test c) HbA1c test d) Hemoglobin electrophoresis test.

C: HbA1c test. The glycosylated hemoglobin test is also known as the HbA1C test and reveals the patient's average blood glucose levels over the past two to three months.

2.84 You must draw a blood culture from a patient who is receiving a course of antibiotics. His next doses are due at 10 pm and 6 am. When is the best time to draw the blood culture? a) At 2 am b) At midnight c) Just after his next dose d) Just before his next dose

D: Just before his next dose. If blood cultures must be drawn after antibiotics have been started, it is recommended to draw them just before the next dose of antibiotics is due. This allows for the highest possible yield of bacteria in the blood culture.

2.85 Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation? a) Complete blood count b) Fetal fibronectin c) Free light chains test d) Legal paternity test

D: Legal paternity test. A legal paternity test requires chain of custody documentation to ensure the sample was taken from the correct person. By going through this procedure, the result of the legal paternity test can then be used for legal proceedings, such as for iminigration applications. Other tests that require chain of custody documentation are legal blood alcohol tests and pre-employment drug screens.

2.86 What is the purpose of a custody seal on a sample container? a) To help identify the sample if the container is misplaced b) To prevent air from entering the container c) To show whether the container has been tampered with d) To show who currently has custody of the container

C: To show whether the container has been tampered with. Custody seals on sample containers serve to provide visual evidence should the container be opened or tampered with.

2.87 What is the minimum number of blood samples needed for the one-step glucose tolerance test? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

B: 2 The one-step glucose tolerance test requires at least two blood samples: a baseline sample before the start of the test and a second sample an hour after the consumption of a glucose drink. In variations of the test, blood samples may also be drawn after two hours and three hours. The test is called “one-step because it is performed in a single patient visit. This is in contrast to the two-step glucose tolerance test, which requires two visits.

2.88 If a patient vomits halfway through an oral GTT, what should you do? a) Stop the test. because the test is now invalid b) Restart the test with a second dose of glucose c) Ask the patient if they would like to continue the test d) Allow the patient to rest for a few minutes before continuing with test

A: Stop the test because the test is now invalid-. If the patient vomits during the oral glucose tolerance test, you should stop the test because the test will now be invalid. The fasting glucose sample may still be sent to the laboratory.

2.89 Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35-37°C? a) Blood culture b) Feces c) Throat swab d) Urine

A: Blood culture. A blood culture is a blood specimen submitted for the culture of microorganisms such as bacteria. Blood cultures should never be refrigerated or frozen because doing this can slow down or kill the microorganisms in the blood sample. Most other clinical material (urine, sputum, swabs, etc.) can be held for several hours in a refrigerator before culturing if it cannot be processed immediately.

2.90 Extra precautions are necessary when labelling specimens for: a) C&S b) blood typing c) factor assays d) therapeutic drug monitoring

B: Blood typing. There is a risk of serious harm to patients if blood typing samples are mixed up. A patient could receive blood from an incompatible blood type, causing a transfusion reaction and even death. For this reason, extra precautions are needed when labelling blood typing samples.

2.91 When shipping infectious organisms, in which shape must the marking UN3373 appear on the box? a) Circle b) Diamond c) Hexagon d) Triangle

B: Diamond. When shipping infections organisms, the code UN3373 (meaning a category B infectious substance) inside a diamond shape must be printed on the outer packaging, as follows:  UN3373.

2.92 An elevated level of white blood cells in urine is called: a) hematuria b) pyelonephritis c) pyuria d) uremin

C: Pyuria. Pyuria is a high level of white blood cells in the urine. It is defined as the presence of 10 or more white cells per cubic millimetre in a urine specimen. Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine. Pyclonephritis is a type of urinary tract. infection. Uremia is the term for high levels of urea in the blood.

2.93 Before you perform urinalysis on a refrigerated urine specimen, you should bring the urine to room temperature and a) boil b) centrifuge c) filter it d) stir

D: Stir. A refrigerated urine sample should always be brought to room temperature and mixed well before analysis.

2.94 Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen? a) Creatinine clearance b) Ketones c) Ketosteroids d) Quantitative drug analysis

B: Ketones. The presence of ketones in urine can be determined instantly with a dipstick test.

2.95 Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases? a) Gout b) Kidney disease c) Liver disease d) Prostate cancer

D: Prostate cancer. Acid phosphatase is an enzyme made primarily in the prostate gland. High levels indicate prostate cancer.

3.1 The main use of a buffer is to: a) accentuate changes in pH b) make a solution more acidic c) make a solution more basic d) minimize changes in pH

D: Minimize changes in pH. A buffer is a solution that resists changes in pH when acid or alkali is added to it. Its purpose is to keep a solution within the desired pH range.

3.2 Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining? a) To make the cell walls permeable so the stain can penetrate b) To melt the bacteria so they release their toxins c) To prevent cells from being washed off during staining d) To provide a warın temperature for the bacteria to grow

C: To prevent cells from being washed off during staining. Bacterial slides are heat-fixed before staining to fix the cells to the slide, so the cells do not wash off during staining.

3.3 Fixatives work best at what pH? a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9

C: 7

3.4 After fixation, bone tissue samples must be: a) decalcified b) frozen c) left at room temperature for at least 24 hours d) refrigerated

A: Decalcified. After fixation, bone tissue samples require decalcification.

3.5 Which of these would increase the tissue processing time for a histology specimen? a) Dense tissue b) Few pieces of tissue in the tissue cassette c) Porous tissue d) Small specimen size

A: Dense tissue. Tissue that is dense, such as uterus tissue and bone tissue, requires more time for reagent penetration. The other factors would decrease the processing time.

3.6 Tissue flotation baths are set at what. temperature? a) 30-40°C b) 40-50°C c) 50-60°C d) 60-70°C

B: 40-50°C. Wax melts at 50-70°C, so tissue flotation baths are set at 40-50°C. A good rule of thumb is to keep water baths 5-10°C below the melting point of the paraffin.

3.7 Microtome blades should generally be angled at around: a) 5 degrees b) 15 degrees c) 25 degrees d) 35 degrees

A: 5 degrees. While each microtome has different recommended settings for the angle of the blade, typically the angle should be between 1 and 5 degrees.

3.8 Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining? a) To make the cell walls visible under the microscope b) To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining c) To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow d) To remove alcohol from the slide

B: To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining Heat fixing adheres or 'fixes' bacteria to the slide. Bacteria will be rinsed off the slide if they are not heat-fixed properly.

3.9 Which of these is a supravital stain? a) New methylene blue b) Romanowsky stain c) Wright's stain d) Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A: New methylene blue. Supravital stains are used to stain living cells that have been removed from the body. Examples of supravital stains are new methylene blue, brilliant cresyl blue, and crystal violet.

3.10 New methylene blue reagent is used to stain: a) Heinz bodies b) cosinophils c) platelets d) reticulocytes

D: Reticulocytes. New methylene blue is typically used for -staining reticulocytes (immature red blood cells).

3.11 Before staining, paraffin sections must be: a) dewaxed b) left underwater for at least an hour c) refrigerated d) submerged in a chlorine solution

A: Dewaxed. Before paraffin wax sections can be stained, they must be dewaxed. Dewaxing means removing the paraffin.

3.12 Giemsa's solution is a mixture of: a) cosin, methylene blue, and azure B b) cosin, safranin, and hematoxylin c) phloxine, methylene blue, and hematoxylin d) safranin, azure B, and hematoxylin

A: Eosin, methylene blue, and azure B. Generally, Giemsa's solution is a mixture. of eosin, methylene blue, and azure B.

3.13 In the hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) staining method, the eosin stains: a) connective tissue blue b) cytoplasms pink c) microorganisms blue d) nuclei pink

B: Cytoplasms pink. Eosin is a pink stain. It binds to basic or positively charged components of the tissue sample, such as cytoplasmic proteins, collagen, and soine extracellular matrix proteins. The other dye in the H&E staining method is hematoxylin. It is a blue dye that binds to acidic components of the tissue, specifically DNA and RNA in the nuclei of cells. After staining with hematoxylin, the nuclei appear blue or purple in colour.

3.14 Which stain can differentiate collagen fibres from other fibres? a) Hematoxylin and eosin stain b) Masson's trichrome stain c) Reticular stain d) Sudan stain

B: Masson's trichrome stain. Masson's trichrome stain is a stain used to stain collagen fibres. Reticular stain is used to visualize reticular fibres. Sudan stain is used to display lipids.

3.15 In regressive staining, tissue sections are ____________ and then differentiated with dilute acid until the optimal endpoint is reached. a) dehydrated b) hydrated c) overstained d) sectioned

C: Overstained. In regressive staining, excess stain is applied to the tissue section. Then, a differentiating solution is applied to remove excess stain from the nuclei.

3.16 Which of these dyes is acidic? a) Basic fuchsin b) Crystal violet c) Eosin d) Safranin

C: Eosin. Eosin is an acidic dye that binds to basic cell components, such as cytoplasmic proteins, collagen, and some extracellular matrix proteins. The rest of the options are basic (alkaline) dyes.

3.17 A lab technician stains a blood film using Wright's stain. However, under the microscope, the red blood cells appear excessively red and the nuclei are poorly stained. What could be the cause? a) Inadequate washing b) Prolonged staining c) The pH of the buffer was too high d) The stain/buffer mixture was too acidic

D: The stain/buffer mixture was too acidic. The buffer used in Wright's staining needs to be at pH 6.8. If the buffer is too acidic the stain will be too red and nuclei will be too light.

3.18 Cytological smears are usually fixed with: n) 10% alcohol b) 2% formalin c) 20% formalin d) 95% alcohol

D: 95% alcohol. 95% ethanol is the standard cytological fixative used in most laboratories.

3.19 Where should agar plates be stored before use? a) In a cupboard b) In a dry oven c) In the freezer d) In the fridge

D: In the fridge. Agar plates should be stored in a refrigerator to prevent the growth of bacteria. Agar plates should not be stored in the freezer. Freezing them will destroy the structure and consistency of the agar.

3.20 Mueller-Hinton agar is used to isolate which type of bacteria? a) Mycobacterium b) Neisseria c) Salinonella d) Staphylococcus

B: Neisseria. Mueller Hinton agar is used to isolate Neisseria and Moraxella species.

3.21 After Gram staining, what colour are gram-positive organismus? a) Orange b) Purple c) Red d) Yellow

B: Purple. In Gram-staining, the primary dye (crystal violet) initially stains all the bacteria purple. Then a decolourizer removes the stain from the gram-negative organisms, leaving only the grain-positive bacteria purple.

3.22 Agar plates are placed upside down in the incubator to prevent: a) contamination from other agar plates b) moisture from accumulating on the agar surface c) pathogens from overgrowing d) the medium from drying out

B: Moisture from accumulating on the agar surface. Placing agar plates upside down helps to prevent excessive condensation from forming on the surface of the agar. When plates are placed right side up, condensation can accumulate on the lid and then drop onto the agar surface, potentially causing uneven growth or contamination.

3.23 Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts? a) EDTA b) Heparin c) Sodium citrato d) Sodium oxalate

A: EDTA. EDTA is the best anticoagulant for preserving the morphology of blood cells. For this reason, red blood cell counts are collected in a tube containing EDTA.

3.24 What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure? a) How long blood takes to form a clot b) How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma c) The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months d) The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood

A: How long blood takes to form a clot. The international normalized ratio (INR) is a measure of the time it takes for a blood sample to clot.

3.25 Which kind of centrifuge is used to spin capillary tubes? a) Angle head b) Cytospin c) Microhematocrit d) Refrigerated

C: Microhematocrit. Capillary tubes are small, thin tubes used for collecting or separating small amounts of blood. They are spun in microcentrifuges, a type of centrifuge ideal for spinning small volumes of samples, such as microcentrifuge tubes, PCR tubes, and capillary tubes.

3.26 Which vacutainer tube is used for trace metal analysis? a) Dark blue b) Green c) Orange d) Red

A: Dark blue. Tubes with dark blue tops are used for copper, zinc, and trace element determinations.

3.27 What is the name for the lung secretion that is tested for malignant cells? a) Saliva b) Simulacrum c) Spittle d) Sputum

D: Sputum.

4.1 Which of these is n 1/8 dilution of urine? a) I part urine and 7 parts water b) 1 part urine and 8 parts water c) 1 part water and 7 parts urine d) 1 part water and 8 parts urine

A: 1 part urine and 7 parts water. A 1/8 dilution factor means the final volume of the solution is 8 times the volume of the solute. To create a 1/8 dilution, you would add 7 parts of solvent (usually water) to 1 part of solute. This results in a total volume of 8 parts. For example, in a 1/8 dilution of urine, the urine makes up 1/8th of the solution. This means the other 7/8ths of tho solution is water. So 1/8 dilution of urine = 1 part urine + 7 parts water.

4.2 To prepare 500 mL of buffer, the lab manual says to mix 2 parts of the concentrated buffer with 6 parts of distilled water. What quantities of buffer and water would be used? n) 125 mL of buffer and 375 mL of water b) 150 mL of buffer and 350 mL of water c) 175 mL of buffer and 325 mL of water d) 200 mL of buffer and 300 mL of water

A: 125 mL of buffer and 375 mL of water. 2+6 is a total of 8 parts. Therefore, the amount of buffer needed:  500 mL x  2/8 = 125 mL The amount of water needed:  500 mL x  6/8 = 325 mL.

4.3 100 ml of 20% hydrochloric acid can make how many mL of 4% hydrochloric acid? a) 50 mL b) 80 mL c) 100 mL d) 500 mL

D: 500 mL, using the c1v1 = c2v2 formula.

4.4 Which of these is a strong acid? n) Carbonic acid b) Nitrous acid c) Pyruvic acid d) Sulfuric acid

D: Sulfuric acid. Strong acids are acids that can completely dissociate into their ions in water. There are only seven strong acids: hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, sulfuric acid, hydrobromic acid, hydroiodic acid, perchloric acid, and chloric acid.

4.5 What is the recommended method for drying glassware after cleaning it? a) By blowing on it b) By leaving it to air dry c) By rinsing it with acetone d) By wiping it with a paper towel

B: By leaving it to air dry. Leaving glassware to air dry is the safest. and most recommended method for drying glassware, especially for critical applications. Leaving cleaned glassware on a drying rack allows for complete evaporation of water without introducing any contamination or residue.

4.6 The inside of the autoclavo should be washed every day with: a) a disinfectant b) a mild detergent c) an antiseptic d) saltwater

B: A mild detergent. The inside of the autoclave should be washed every day with a mild detergent and warm water. It is important to avoid using harsh chemicals or abrasive materials when cleaning the autoclave, as this can damage the internal surfaces and affect its performance.

4.7 Autoclaves work on which principle? a) Cold sterilization b) Free-flowing steam c) Hot water d) Moist heat sterilization

D: Moist heat sterilization. Autoclaves work on the principle of moist heat sterilization. where steam under pressure is used to sterilize the material inside.

4.8 Superheating steam in an autoclave: n) diminishes its sterilizing capacity b) helps to dry out the equipment c) increases its sterilizing power d) will make the centrifuge spin faster

A: Diminishes its sterilizing capacity. Superheated steam is too hot for an autoclave and will actually kill microorganisms less efficiently than normal steam.

4.9 What is the most common sterilization method in clinical laboratories? a) Autoclaving b) Boiling c) Chemical sterilization d) Dry heat oven

A: Autoclaving.

5.1 Your laboratory employs people from many different backgrounds and cultures. Which teamwork skill would be most relevant. for increasing team cohesiveness? a) Accept criticism b) Be dependable c) Be tolerant d) Compromise

C: Be tolerant. Tolerance is having an open mind in your interactions with others and making an effort to understand their backgrounds and beliefs.

5.2 If you heard from an employee of a laboratory that it's a tradition here for us to stand up and defend the laboratory when someone criticizes it, you could assume that the laboratory employees have strong ___________________ norms. a) ethical and social responsibility b) improvement and change c) organizational and personal pride d) support and helpfulness

C: Organizational and personal pride.

5.3 When dealing with blind patients, you should: a) narrate your actions b) provide written materials c) use an interpreter d) use simple language

A: Narrate your actions. Narrating your actions helps blind patients to know what is happening around them and puts them at ease.

5.4 You have to draw blood from an elderly patient. You think his name is John Smith but you are not sure. What is the best way to confirm the patient's name? a) Are you John Smith? b) Can you confirm that you are John Smith please? c) I'm a phlebotomist and I'm here to draw your blood. First, though, I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith? d) What is your name?

D: What is your name?. Asking the patient to verbally state his name is always better than asking him to simply respond yes or no. It may be that he has hearing or cognitive problems and he would respond yes to any question.

6.1 A technique that has demonstrated its superiority over other techniques over time is known as the: a) benchmark b) best practice c) business case d) gap analysis

B: Best practice.

6.2 Which statistic is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values? a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Standard deviation

D: Standard deviation. The standard deviation is a statistic that measures how far results deviate from the mean.

6.3 If a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1, then 95% of the values obtained should fall within what range? a) 1-9 b) 2-8 c) 3-7 d) 4-6

C: 3-7. In statistics, approximately 95% of values fall within 2 standard deviations of the mean. This is known as the 95% confidence interval. The question says the standard deviation is 1. Therefore, two standard deviations are 2 (1 x 2). This means 95% of values will fall ±2 from the mean. Since the mean is 5, this means 95% of values will fall between 5±2, or 3-7.

6.4 What is the main goal of quality management systems in laboratories? a) To automate laboratory work and eliminate human error b) To continuously improve the laboratory processes c) To reduce the cost of laboratory equipment d) To reduce the need for skilled technologists

B: To continuously improve laboratory processes.

6.5 _________is used to develop creative solutions by focusing on the problem, coming up with many unbounded solutions, and then pushing the ideas as far as possible. a) Benchmarking b) Brainstorming c) PMI (plus/minus/interesting) d) Pareto charts

B: Brainstorming.

6.6 Which problem-solving methodology consists of the phases Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control? a) Lean b) Pareto charts c) Six Sigma d) The Shewhart cycle

C: Six Sigma. Define, measure, analyze, improve, and control (DMAIC) is a five-stage method used by Six Sigma to improve processes and products.

6.7 What is the reliability coefficient of a perfectly reliable test? a) 0 b) 1 c) 5 d) 100

B: 1 The reliability coefficient is a number between 0 and 1 that represents the accuracy of a test, research instrument, or rating. A perfectly reliable test has a reliability coefficient of 1.

6.8 The acronym PDCA means: a) plan, decide, check, assess b) plan, do, check, act c) prepare, decide, check, act d) prepare, decipher, challenge, assess

B: Plan, do, check, act.

7.1 What are standards of practice? a) A definition of competent behaviour for professionals b) Measures to ensure work is accurate c) Rules for how organizations must treat their employees d) Rules for students on work placements

A: A definition of competent behaviour for professionals.

7.2 What does the maxim primum non nocere mean? a) First, do good b) First, do no harm c) Follow the patient's requests d) The patient always comes first

B: First, do no harm.

7.3 A lawyer asks a tMLT for copies of his client's test results. What should they do? a) Allow the lawyer to see the results on the computer b) Give the results to the lawyer immediately c) Have the lawyer sign a Medical Release Form and then release the results d) Tell the lawyer to contact the physician who ordered the tests

D: Tell the lawyer to contact the physician who ordered the tests. Laboratory technicians can only give results to the physician who ordered the tests. Release of test results to third parties, including lawyers, can only be done by the physician or patient. Even then, the physician would need authorization from the patient before providing the lawyer with a copy of the results.

7.4 Do not cause pain or suffering applies to which basic ethical principle? a) Beneficence b) Justice c) Noumaleficence d) Respect for autonomy

C: Nonmaleficence.

7.5 Which principle of the Canada Health Act ensures that citizens have healthcare even if they are in another province? a) Accessibility b) Portability c) Public administration d) Universality

B: Portability. The principle of portability means that insured persons are entitled to receive medically necessary services when they are temporarily outside their home province or territory, as long as they remain within Canada. This means that if a Canadian resident becomes ill or requires medical attention while travelling to another province or territory, they are entitled to receive necessary medical care without having to pay out-of-pocket expenses.

7.6 Which principle of the Canada Health Act is not patient-focused but rather the means of achieving the end to which the other four principles are directed? a) Accessibility b) Comprehensiveness c) Portability d) Public administration

D: Public administration. Public administration is the fourth principle of the Canada Health Act. It requires provincial and territorial health care insurance plans to be managed by a public agency on a not-for-profit basis. The principle is how healthcare services are funded and organized but it is not directly patient-focused.

7.7 Which principle of PIPEDA states that everyone has a right to ask organizations for a copy of their personal information? a) Accountability b) Individual Access c) Openness d) Safeguards

B: Individual Access.

8.1 A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do? a) Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you b) Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts c) Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid d) Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen

A: Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you.

8.2 A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient but the patient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do? a) Ask a nurse to put an ID band on the patient before you draw the specimen b) Identify the patient. by asking them to confirm their name c) Identify the patient by the name card on the door d) Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request

A: Ask the patient's nurse to put an ID band on the patient before you draw the specimen.

8.3 There are two patients in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed? a) Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask b) Do not take anything that contains latex into the room c) Proceed as usual d) Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual

B: Do not take anything that contains latex into the room.

8.4 A phlebotomist needs to take a blood sample from a patient with an IV in her left arm and a mastectomy on her right side. From where should the phlebotomist. take the sample? a) The left arm, from a vein above the IV b) The left arm, from a vein below the IV c) The right arm, from a forearm vein d) The right arin, from an elbow vein

B: The left arm, from a vein below the IV Venipuncture is generally avoided on a side of the body that has had a mastectomy. This is because lymph nodes are often excised during a mastectomy, and their removal interferes with the flow of lymph. Placing a tourniquet on the arm on the side of a mastectomy may lead to of lymphedema, which is a build-up lymph fluid. In addition, mastectomy patients have a higher risk of needlestick infections due to the removal of their lymph nodes, making it even more important to avoid unnecessary procedures on that side. When the patient has a mastectomy and an IV, it is better to draw blood from the side with the IV. You should perform the draw below the IV, to avoid the IV fluids contaminating the blood sample and maintain accuracy of the blood test results.

8.5 A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do? a) Change to pediatric tubes b) Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition c) Switch to a winged blood collection set. d) Try adjusting the needle slightly

D: Try adjusting the needle slightly. If no blood flows when the needle is in place, then the needle may not be in a vein. You should first try slightly manipulating the needle. If blood still does not flow, you should withdraw the needle and repeat the venipuncture.

8.6 A phlebotomist must draw a blood sample from a patient with an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample? a) A vein in the left hand b) An earlobe c) The left median cubital vein d) The right median cubital vein

A: A vein in the left hand. When the patient has an IV in one arm, blood samples should be taken from the other arm. However, in this case, drawing blood from the patient's other arm is not possible due to the cast. In this situation, the blood must be drawn from the arm with the IV. Where blood must be drawn from an arm with an IV, the blood sample should be drawn below the IV, not above it. This means the only place the blood can be drawn is the patient's hand. The blood sample should not be drawn from the left median cubital vein because this site is above the IV. Drawing blood from here could contaminate the blood sample with IV fluid.

8.7 A patient begins a routine glucose tolerance test. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood sugar is 20.8 mmol/L. What should you do? a) Do nothing and continue with the test. b) Make a note and continue with the test c) Start the test again d) Tell the attending nurse immediately

D: Tell the attending nurse immediately. A blood sugar level higher than 14 mmol/L is a potential emergency and the patient's nurse or doctor should be called.