[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After completing initial diagnostics and allocating system resources, the startup BIOS program checks for information about secondary storage devices that might contain the OS. The list of these devices and the order in which they are checked can be found and configured in BIOS via:

ACPI settings | System Configuration utility | *Boot options* | Security tab/menu

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which BIOS configuration option helps mitigate a common vector for malware infection?

User password | Chassis intrusion detection | Supervisor password | *USB permissions settings*

[MULTISELECT] The TPM functionality (if available) in the BIOS/UEFI setup interface provides which of the following features? (Select all that apply)

*Allows only trusted boot files to run at startup* | *Stores encryption keys in secure hardware for full-disk encryption* | Encrypts individual user accounts on the OS | *Logs boot processes to detect changes* | *Safely creates and stores cryptographic keys* | *Checks system integrity before granting network access*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Modern motherboards feature temperature sensors near key components like the CPU and chipset. The BIOS/UEFI firmware periodically polls these sensors to obtain current temperature readings and, according to the configured fan control settings (which can be automatic or user-defined), adjusts the speed of the system's cooling fans.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following terms refers to the advanced security feature integrated into modern UEFI firmware that ensures only digitally signed, trusted software is allowed to run during the system’s startup process?

*Secure Boot* | Trusted OS Loader | Boot Guard | Trusted Boot

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to a boot password? (Select all that apply)

Required to access and modify BIOS/UEFI settings | *Primarily protects against unauthorized use of the device* | Activated only when entering the BIOS configuration menu | *Required before the OS loads to prevent unauthorized access* | *Does not restrict access to BIOS/UEFI settings* | Prevents configuration changes to firmware settings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following statements does not apply to a BIOS password?

Activated only when entering the BIOS configuration menu | Restricts access to the BIOS/UEFI setup interface | Does not interfere with the actual boot process once configured | *Ensures that unauthorized users cannot start the system* | Prevents unauthorized modifications to firmware settings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following terms refers to a 32-bit CPU architecture?

x32 | x48 | x64 | *x86*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below describes a CPU designed for 64-bit processing?

x32 | x48 | *x64* | x86

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The presence of the Program Files (x86) folder on the C drive in MS Windows indicates that the system uses a 32-bit architecture and a 32-bit OS version.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A CPU design based on an instruction set that tries to improve speed by utilizing relatively few and simple instructions is called:

*RISC* | IA-64 | EPIC | CISC

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to ARM-type CPU architecture? (Select all that apply)

*Characterized by lowered power consumption* | Typically used in personal computers, laptops, and servers | *Focuses on simplifying the instruction set to enhance processing efficiency* | Employs complex instructions for efficient memory management and backward compatibility | *Commonly used in mobile devices and embedded systems* | *Suitable for battery-powered devices*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of CPU architecture where a single physical CPU contains more than one physical processing unit on a single integrated circuit is referred to as:

Multiprocessor system architecture | *Multicore architecture* | Modular processor design architecture | Multithreading architecture

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements that enable virtualization is known as:

ESXi | *VT-x* | Xen | Hyper-V

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to AMD’s CPU hardware virtualization enhancements?

vSphere | Zen | *AMD-V* | Catalyst

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to (a) solution(s) directly aimed at improving CPU heat dissipation? (Select all that apply)

CPU undervolting | *Thermal pad* | *CPU fan* | *Heat sink* | CPU throttling | *Thermal paste* | *Liquid-based cooling*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] As opposed to active cooling components like cooling fans, heat sinks are considered passive cooling components because they do not require electrical power to operate.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In CPU cooling, thermal paste is applied to fill the narrow gap between the:

*CPU and heat sink* | Heat sink and thermal pad | CPU and thermal pad | Heat sink and CPU fan

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to T568A and T568B standards? (Select 2 answers)

Specify the shielding requirements for twisted-pair cabling | *Define the pinout configuration for RJ45 connectors used in Ethernet cabling* | *Specify the pin assignments for the eight wires contained in twisted-pair cables* | Control the twist rate of each pair in a twisted-pair cable | Set the standards for plenum-rated cable coatings

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements describe(s) coaxial cabling? (Select all that apply)

*Commonly used for cable television signals* | *Features a single copper conductor surrounded by insulation and shielding* | *Classified as a copper-based transmission medium* | *Typically used in broadband cable Internet connections* | Contains multiple twisted pairs of copper wires in a single sheath

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of twisted-pair copper cabling takes advantage of an additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources?

Coax | *STP* | UTP | Twinax

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to direct burial STP's features and applications? (Select all that apply)

*Enhanced shielding* | *Underground network infrastructure* | Plenum-rated outer jacket for fire resistance | *Water and chemical resistance* | *Outdoor network infrastructure* | *Durable outer jacket*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A key feature of all twisted-pair cabling types is that wires inside the cable are grouped into pairs, and the wires in each pair are twisted around each other to reduce signal interference from adjacent wire pairs.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers does not refer to UTP cabling?

Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems | Characterized by low cost and ease of installation | *Shielded to reduce external interference* | In Ethernet networks, installed with RJ45 connector type | Classified as twisted-pair copper cabling

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of enclosed space in a building, such as the one between a dropped ceiling and the structural ceiling, used for air handling, is commonly referred to as a plenum space. A special type of cabling with a fire-retardant jacket, designed for use in that space, is known as plenum-rated cabling.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] What are the key features of single-mode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers)

Supports transmission distances of up to 2 km | *Typically incurs a higher cost than multimode fiber optic systems* | Employs LED light sources for transmission | *Offers long-distance transmission capabilities, often exceeding 100 km* | *Utilizes laser light as the source of transmission* | Typically incurs lower costs than multimode fiber optic systems

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of multimode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers)

Utilizes laser light sources for transmission | *Supports transmission distances of up to 2 km* | Generally more expensive than single-mode fiber optics | Capable of supporting transmission distances of up to 100 km or more | *Usually less expensive than single-mode fiber optics* | *Employs LED light sources for transmission*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] USB 2.0 (a.k.a. Hi-Speed USB) specifies the maximum data transfer rate of:

120 Mbps | 240 Mbps | *480 Mbps* | 960 Mbps

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the maximum allowable cable length for USB 2.0?

3 meters | 4.5 meters | *5 meters* | 10 meters

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to the USB 3.0 standard? (Select 3 answers)

High Speed USB | *Backward compatibility with earlier USB versions* | 3 Gbps data transfer rate | Full Speed USB | *5 Gbps data transfer rate* | *SuperSpeed USB* | 10 Gbps data transfer rate | No backward compatibility with earlier USB versions

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] USB 3.1 improves over its predecessors by supporting a maximum data transfer rate of:

6 Gbps | *10 Gbps* | 12 Gbps | 20 Gbps

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the maximum theoretical data transfer rate supported by USB 3.2?

10 Gbps | *20 Gbps* | 30 Gbps | 40 Gbps

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the maximum practical cable length for a typical USB 3.x connection?

1 meter | *3 meters* | 4.5 meters | 5 meters

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an older type of serial cable used to connect modems, printers, mice, and other peripheral devices?

RJ11 | RG-6 | *RS-232* | RG-59

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Thunderbolt 1 uses two separate 10 Gbps data channels, providing a combined maximum throughput of 20 Gbps. However, a single task may use only one of these channels at a time, limiting the speed to 10 Gbps per task. Thunderbolt 2 bonds the two channels into one unified 20 Gbps connection, allowing one high-bandwidth task to utilize the full capacity, while Thunderbolt 3 further increases this overall throughput to 40 Gbps.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the maximum allowable length for a Thunderbolt copper cable?

*Up to 3 meters* | Up to 6 meters | Up to 10 meters | Up to 15 meters

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The fiber-optic Thunderbolt interface allows for a maximum cable length of:

30 meters | 40 meters | 50 meters | *60 meters*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to video connection standards? (Select all that apply)

SATA | *DVI* | *DisplayPort* | USB | eSATA | *HDMI* | *VGA*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the interfaces listed below provide the capability for transmission of both video and audio data? (Select 2 answers)

S/PDIF | DVI | VGA | *HDMI* | *DisplayPort*

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through an HDMI cable? (Select 2 answers)

Analog signal | Video only | *Digital signal* | Audio only | *Video and audio*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers best describes the signal capabilities of DisplayPort?

Analog video | Audio only | *Digital audio/video* | Video only | Analog audio

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the DVI versions listed below does not provide support for digital signal transmission?

DVI-D | *DVI-A* | DVI-I | DVI-A/D

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which DVI type does not provide support for analog signal transmission?

*DVI-D* | DVI-A | DVI-I | DVI-A/D

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] DVI-I provides support for both digital and analog video signal transmission.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through a standard VGA cable? (Select 2 answers)

Audio | Video and audio | Digital | *Video* | *Analog*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] USB-C supports Alternate Mode (Alt Mode), which allows it to transmit video signals using protocols such as DisplayPort or HDMI. Through Alt Mode, USB-C can deliver video to external displays like monitors or TVs, offering the same functionality as dedicated video cables. To connect to most external displays, USB-C requires a compatible adapter or cable, such as USB-C to DisplayPort or USB-C to HDMI.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of SATA revision 1.0 (SATA I)? (Select 2 answers)

*1.5 Gbps data transfer rate* | *Maximum cable length of 1 meter* | 3 Gbps data transfer rate | Maximum cable length of 2 meters | 6 Gbps data transfer rate | Maximum cable length of 3 meters

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The SATA interface specification defines a power connector consisting of:

12 pins | *15 pins* | 20 pins | 24 pins

[MULTISELECT] SATA revision 2.0 (SATA II) specifies: (Select 2 answers)

Maximum cable length of 3 meters | 6 Gbps data transfer rate | Maximum cable length of 2 meters | *3 Gbps data transfer rate* | *Maximum cable length of 1 meter* | 1.5 Gbps data transfer rate

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A single SATA data cable can be used to connect a motherboard slot with:

Up to 3 devices | Up to 2 devices | *Only 1 device* | Up to 4 devices

[MULTISELECT] The characteristic features of SATA revision 3.0 (SATA III) include: (Select 2 answers)

32 Gbps data transfer rate | Maximum cable length of 2 meters | 16 Gbps data transfer rate | *Maximum cable length of 1 meter* | *6 Gbps data transfer rate* | Maximum cable length of 3 meters

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The SATA interface specification defines a data cable connector consisting of:

4 pins | 6 pins | *7 pins* | 8 pins

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to eSATA? (Select all that apply)

Maximum cable length of 1 meter | *Hot-swappable functionality* | 3 Gbps data transfer rate | *External connection for storage* | *A standard cable length of up to 2 meters* | *6 Gbps data transfer rate*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe the functionalities typically offered by cable adapters? (Select 2 answers)

*Signal conversion (e.g., digital to analog)* | *Connector form factor adjustment* | Single-port-to-multi-port expansion | Hot swap capability for connected devices | Signal amplification for extended range

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below best describes a private cloud?

*A cloud infrastructure that is exclusively used by a single organization* | A cloud environment where several organizations collaborate and share resources | A cloud computing model that blends internal resources with public services | A cloud platform that offers on-demand access for various organizations

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What type of entities would typically use a private cloud?

Small businesses looking to reduce costs | Public service providers | *Organizations with strict compliance and security requirements* | Anyone seeking to make use of cloud storage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a cloud deployment model where computing resources (such as servers, storage, and applications) are owned and operated by a third-party cloud service provider and shared across multiple organizations or tenants?

Hybrid cloud | Private cloud | Community cloud | *Public cloud*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below best defines a hybrid cloud?

A model that offers on-demand access to shared public resources | A model that pools resources exclusively among organizations with shared interests | *A model that integrates both private and public cloud resources* | A model that dedicates the entire infrastructure to one organization

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary advantage of a hybrid cloud?

Allows for shared infrastructure between organizations | *Combines the benefits of private and public cloud deployment models* | Offers dedicated infrastructure for a single organization | Provides enhanced control over security and privacy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of cloud infrastructure shared by several organizations with similar security, compliance, or industry requirements is known as:

Federated cloud | Distributed cloud | Shared cloud | *Community cloud*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to example implementations of the community cloud deployment model? (Select 3 answers)

A federated cloud infrastructure connecting multiple independent providers | *A cloud environment developed for universities conducting joint research projects* | *A shared cloud used by several government agencies* | *A cloud-based solution for public safety organizations with similar data handling policies* | A multinational cloud infrastructure using separate private clouds in each region

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a cloud computing service model where clients, instead of buying hardware and software, access computing infrastructure as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment and software?

SaaS | DaaS | PaaS | *IaaS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A cloud computing service model that provides users with remote access to applications over the Internet on a subscription basis is called:

PaaS | *SaaS* | IaaS | DaaS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which cloud computing service model would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?

DaaS | SaaS | *PaaS* | IaaS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which cloud deployment model primarily relies on the concept of shared resources?

Private cloud | Hybrid cloud | Dedicated cloud | *Public cloud*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is a key benefit of utilizing shared resources in cloud computing?

Enhanced security through isolation | Full control over the physical infrastructure | *Lower costs due to economies of scale* | Predictable and consistent performance

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is a potential drawback of using shared resources in a cloud environment?

*Possible performance degradation during high demand periods* | Difficulty in managing multiple cloud instances simultaneously | Inability to scale resources up or down based on demand | More complex management of the underlying infrastructure for the user

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe effects of using dedicated resources in cloud computing? (Select 3 answers)

Performance degradation during peak usage | *Consistent and reliable performance* | *Higher, fixed costs regardless of resource use* | Cost-effective pay-as-you-go pricing | Reliance on provider’s security controls | *Greater control and stronger data isolation*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which cloud deployment model most commonly relies on dedicated resources?

Public cloud | Community cloud | Hybrid cloud | *Private cloud*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In cloud computing, metered utilization refers to a billing model where customers are charged based on actual resource consumption.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following are the core components of metered billing in cloud services? (Select 2 answers)

*Volume of ingress data* | The number of API calls made to the service | Power consumption levels | *Volume of egress data* | Number of database transactions processed

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the context of metered utilization, what does the term egress refer to?

Data download speed | Data upload speed | *Data leaving cloud* | Data entering cloud

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Under a metered utilization model, ingress is defined as:

Data transfer speed into the cloud | *Data entering the cloud environment* | Data transfer speed from the cloud | Data leaving the cloud environment

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Elasticity in cloud computing ensures that resource allocation adjusts automatically based on demand, increasing resources when usage spikes and scaling down during periods of low demand. By automatically adjusting to actual demand, elasticity minimizes the risk of having too many idle resources (over-provisioning) or too few resources during peak times (under-provisioning), leading to efficient resource management.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the goal of availability in cloud computing?

Synchronizing data across multiple user devices in real time | Allowing multiple users to share the same resources | Dynamically scaling resources based on demand | *Ensuring services are accessible with minimal interruption*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which metric is most commonly used to represent the availability of a cloud service?

Outage duration | Error rate percentage | Network packet loss rate | *Uptime percentage*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which term refers to the formal agreement specifying availability guarantees between a cloud service provider and a customer?

BPA | EULA | *SLA* | MSA

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below best describes file synchronization in a cloud environment?

Maintaining a version history for documents stored online | *Reflecting file edits made on one device across all other connected devices* | Allowing multiple users to simultaneously edit different sections of a shared online document | Transferring file documents between different cloud service providers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which cloud computing feature enables several customers to share a single software deployment without accessing each other's data?

*Multitenancy* | Elasticity | Dynamic provisioning | Load balancing

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers describe the characteristics of a router? (Select 3 answers)

Operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model | *Connects multiple networks together* | Uses MAC addresses to forward data frames to the correct port | *Operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model* | *Uses IP addresses to send data packets to their destination* | Connects multiple devices within a single network

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to a network switch? (Select 3 answers)

*Connects multiple devices within a single network* | Operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model | *Uses MAC addresses to forward data frames to the correct port* | Connects multiple networks together | *Operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model* | Uses IP addresses to send data packets to their destination

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of a managed switch? (Select 3 answers)

Cannot be managed or adjusted remotely | Operates on a simple plug-and-play basis without the need (or ability) for manual configuration | *Can be monitored and controlled remotely* | *Includes integrated tools for real-time monitoring, diagnostics, and security features* | Simply forwards data without offering monitoring capabilities or advanced security measures | *Offers extensive configuration options*

[MULTISELECT] An unmanaged switch: (Select 3 answers)

Offers extensive configuration options | Includes built-in tools for real-time monitoring, diagnostics, and security features | Allows remote access for monitoring and management | *Operates as a simple plug-and-play device, requiring no manual setup* | *Forwards network traffic without providing monitoring features or advanced security functions* | *Cannot be managed or reconfigured remotely*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A networking hardware device connecting wireless devices to a wired network is referred to as a(n):

Wi-Fi extender | Network bridge | *Access point* | Media converter

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for copper cable management is known as:

Cable splitter | *Patch panel* | Ethernet hub | Cable distribution unit

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a hardware security device or software application that monitors and controls both incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules?

Proxy server | Malware scanner | *Firewall* | Content filter

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The IEEE 802.3 standards for Power over Ethernet (PoE) provide varying levels of power to support different types of devices based on their energy needs. IEEE 802.3af (PoE) delivers up to 15.4W per port, making it ideal for low-power devices such as basic IP phones, wireless access points, and standard security cameras. IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) increases power delivery to 25.5W per port, supporting devices like PTZ cameras and high-performance access points that require additional wattage for advanced features. The IEEE 802.3bt (PoE++) standard further expands power capabilities, where Type 3 supports up to 60W per port and Type 4 extends this to 100W per port, enabling support for higher-power devices such as LED lighting, building automation systems, and certain computing devices, all while transmitting both power and data over a single Ethernet cable.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which device enables a network switch without built-in PoE support to deliver power over Ethernet?

PoE converter | PoE adapter | *PoE injector* | PoE extender

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of cable modems? (Select 3 answers)

*Cabling that carries TV signals* | Telephone lines | *Coaxial cabling* | *Shared bandwidth* | Twisted-pair copper cabling | Dedicated bandwidth

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which term describes the use of cable modems for Internet access over a standard cable television infrastructure?

Dial-up | *Cable broadband* | Frame relay | Metro-Ethernet

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following characteristics apply to DSL modems? (Select 3 answers)

*Dedicated bandwidth* | Cabling that carries TV signals | Shared bandwidth | *Twisted-pair copper cabling* | *Telephone lines* | Coaxial cabling

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of fiber-optic equipment is typically located at a demarcation point?

MDI | IDF | *ONT* | MDF

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a computer's hardware component designed for enabling network access?

CPU | PSU | *NIC* | GPU

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following refers to a unique, 48-bit identifier used as a physical network address?

SSID | IP | GUID | *MAC*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answer choices describe typical applications of the RJ11 connector? (Select 3 answers)

Ethernet network cabling | *Telephone equipment* | Fiber-optic cabling | Coaxial cabling | *Dial-up networking* | *Twisted-pair copper cabling*

[MULTISELECT] The RJ45 connector is used with: (Select 2 answers)

Fiber-optic cabling | Coaxial cabling | Dial-up networking | *Twisted-pair copper cabling* | Telephone equipment | *Ethernet network cabling*

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of the F-type connector? (Select 3 answers)

*Threaded (screw-on) connector* | *Satellite/cable TV, broadband Internet connections via cable modems* | Twisted-pair copper cabling | Bayonet-style (twist-and-lock) connector | *Coaxial cabling* | Professional audio and video equipment, CCTV systems, laboratory, and testing equipment

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe the ST fiber-optic connector? (Select 3 answers)

*Bayonet twist-and-lock mechanism* | Common in high-density network environments like data centers | *Large cylindrical shape* | *Common in older networks and multimode fiber setups* | Small form factor connector | Latch locking mechanism similar to RJ-45 connectors

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of the SC fiber-optic connector? (Select 2 answers)

*Widely used in datacom and telecom applications* | Latch locking mechanism similar to RJ-45 connectors | Bayonet twist-and-lock mechanism | *Push-pull locking mechanism for easy insertion and removal* | Common in older networks and multimode fiber setups

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following characteristics describe the LC fiber-optic connector? (Select 3 answers)

Large cylindrical shape | Common in older networks and multimode fiber setups | Bayonet twist-and-lock mechanism | *Latch locking mechanism similar to RJ-45 connectors* | *Common in high-density network environments like data centers* | *Small form factor connector*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A termination device (or module) that secures individual wires directly onto metal contacts to form permanent, solderless connections is known as:

*Punchdown block* | Keystone wall plate | Patch panel | Wire junction box

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to (a) non-reversible connector type(s) used in older mobile devices? (Select all that apply)

USB Type-A | *MicroUSB* | USB-C | *MiniUSB* | USB Type-B

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers applies to USB-C connector?

Symmetrical connector design | Bi-directional power and data transfer | Video output capability (DisplayPort/HDMI over USB-C) | High data transfer speeds | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the name of the most common connector type used for providing power to various hardware components inside a computer case?

D-sub connector | Mini-DIN connector | Berg connector | *Molex connector*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a proprietary 8-pin connector used for charging, data transfer, and audio output in iOS devices?

Thunderbolt | FireWire | Doc Connector | *Lightning*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a serial communication copper connector often found on older PCs, networking equipment, and industrial hardware?

RG-6 | PS/2 | RG-59 | *DB-9*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Power-On Self-Test (POST) is a diagnostic sequence run by a computer’s BIOS or UEFI when the system is powered on. It checks whether essential hardware components are functioning correctly before attempting to load the operating system. If an issue is detected during POST, the BIOS typically reports the error through a series of audible beeps. Since beep code meanings are highly specific to each BIOS manufacturer, there is no universal standard across vendors. Troubleshooting POST beeps begins by identifying the motherboard's BIOS manufacturer. This information is usually displayed briefly on the screen during the initial startup phase (it can also be found in the motherboard manual or by looking up the motherboard model online). Once the appropriate beep code chart is located, the pattern of beeps (such as the number, duration, and spacing) can help identify the faulty component for targeted troubleshooting.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The Blue Screen of Death (BSoD), also known as a stop error screen, appears in Microsoft Windows when the system encounters a critical error it cannot recover from without risking further instability. The BSoD typically displays technical details that may help advanced users diagnose the underlying cause of the error. In earlier versions of Windows, the BSoD included elements such as an error code, the memory address where the fault occurred, and the name of the driver that caused it. Beginning with Windows 8, the screen was redesigned to present a simplified message, along with a stop code, a URL, and a QR code linking to online troubleshooting resources. For Windows to recover from a BSoD, a system restart is required. This may occur automatically or be triggered manually using the Ctrl + Alt + Delete key combination or by pressing the computer’s power button.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] When a blank screen appears after system startup, the initial troubleshooting steps include verifying that the system is receiving power (as indicated by fans, LEDs, or other activity) and ensuring that the monitor is turned on, properly connected, and set to the correct input. The absence of any display output may indicate issues with critical components such as the motherboard, RAM, CPU, or GPU, which can prevent the system from passing POST. If no issues are identified with the power or connections, reseating the RAM, GPU, and confirming proper CPU installation, as well as clearing the CMOS to reset BIOS settings, can help resolve configuration issues that might cause a blank screen. Additionally, checking and replacing cables, or testing the monitor on another system, when available, further isolates the root cause of the problem.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of these external checks would be useful when troubleshooting a PC that shows no signs of receiving power?

Ensure that the power cord is securely connected to both the wall outlet and the PSU | Confirm that the outlet is delivering power by testing it with another device or using a circuit tester | Examine the power cord for physical damage or fraying | Verify that any surge protector or power strip is turned on and functioning properly | Plug the system directly into the wall outlet to eliminate the surge protector as a factor | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following actions might be of help when troubleshooting a PSU that fails to power on?

Confirming that the PSU’s power switch (usually located on the back of the unit) is turned on | Inspecting the PSU for any signs of physical damage, burning smells, or unusual noises | Performing a paperclip test (ATX jumper test) to verify PSU fan activation | Testing the PSU with a PSU tester or replacing it temporarily with a known-good unit | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which internal power delivery checks would be useful when troubleshooting a PC that is not powering on?

Performing a visual inspection of internal components for signs of damage, such as burnt components or leaking capacitors | Ensuring that the motherboard is installed correctly with no grounding issues (e.g., misplaced standoffs) | Confirming that the CPU is properly aligned, securely locked, free from damage and debris, and in optimal contact with the cooling solution | Ensuring that all internal power connectors (main ATX, CPU, GPU, and any additional connectors) are firmly seated on the motherboard | Verifying that the power button cable from the case is correctly connected to the appropriate motherboard header | Trying a minimal boot configuration (CPU, GPU, and a single RAM module) to determine if any additional component is causing a conflict that prevents power from being delivered or recognized | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which motherboard-related issue can result in degraded performance without triggering errors or shutdowns?

Corrupted BIOS/UEFI firmware | *Swollen/leaking capacitors* | Improperly seated CPU | Disconnected ATX power cable

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During heavy multitasking in a workstation, a technician notices that the disk activity light remains almost constantly lit, even without any large file transfers. Applications load very slowly, and the overall system response is noticeably degraded. A performance monitoring tool confirms an unusually high level of paging, where data is frequently swapped to the disk. What is the most likely cause of this behavior?

Overheating of the CPU | Background antivirus scan | Faulty disk controller | *Insufficient amount of RAM*

[MULTISELECT] What are the likely effects of mixing RAM modules of different sizes and speeds on system performance? (Select 2 answers)

*The system will use the total combined memory size of all installed RAM modules* | *The system will automatically downgrade performance to the speed of the slowest RAM module* | The system will use only the fastest RAM module to compensate for slower performance | The system will prioritize the RAM module with the highest capacity | The result of mixing RAM modules of different sizes will not affect system performance

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A CPU is operating well below its advertised speed, resulting in slow system response. The BIOS displays the correct CPU model but reports a lower frequency than expected. Which setting could cause this behavior?

Incorrect fan speed control settings | *Enabled power-saving mode* | Disabled CPU temperature monitoring | Enabled CPU thermal throttling protection

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After upgrading a gaming PC with a high-performance GPU, the user notices sluggish in-game performance, system instability, unexpected shutdowns, and random reboots under heavy load. What is the most likely cause?

Overheating CPU | Faulty GPU | *Overloaded PSU* | Insufficient RAM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Microsoft Windows operating systems, the Performance tab in Windows Task Manager allows users to identify hardware components affecting system performance. In a similar fashion, Task Manager's Processes tab can be used to identify compute-intensive applications and processes that may be the cause of sluggish system performance.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Excessive dust buildup inside the computer case might be the cause of overheating, which in turn may lead to:

Sluggish performance | Frequent system crashes | Unexpected shutdowns | Irreversible hardware damage | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the symptoms listed below is most likely a direct result of overheating?

Reduced cooling efficiency | Application crashes | *Random system shutdowns* | Blank screen during boot

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is thermal throttling in relation to CPU overheating?

The CPU increasing fan speed to cool down | *The CPU reducing its operating speed to avoid damage* | The PSU reducing voltage to the CPU | The CPU entering a low-power state to reduce energy consumption

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most appropriate immediate action when a burning smell is detected coming from a computer case?

Disconnect all external devices and peripherals | Inspect physical components for burn marks or discoloration | Disable performance-boosting features in the OS to mitigate heat | *Shut down the system and unplug it from a power source*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following could lead to unexpected shutdowns in a computer system?

Dust buildup restricting airflow | Overheating CPU/GPU | Memory errors or failing RAM modules | Failing or underpowered PSU | Software corruption or misconfiguration | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below can help maintain system stability and prevent hardware-related crashes?

Cleaning internal components with compressed air to remove dust buildup | Replacing or reapplying CPU thermal paste as needed | Conducting memory diagnostics tests | Installing a PSU that meets or exceeds power requirements | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following tools in Windows can help troubleshoot unresponsive apps and identify potential causes of application crashes?

Event Viewer | Reliability Monitor | Task Manager | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports a popping sound from their computer, followed by it shutting down. What is the most probable cause?

Failing hard drive | Power surge from the wall outlet | Static electricity discharge | *Blown capacitor*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A visual inspection of a motherboard reveals a capacitor with a rounded top. What is the best course of action?

Use a voltage meter to test the capacitor's charge | Gently press down on the top of the capacitor | Ignore it unless the system starts showing problems | *Replace the motherboard or affected component*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What should be done if a computer’s system date and time reset every time it is powered off, despite being set correctly in the OS?

Verify CMOS jumper settings | Enable automatic time synchronization | Update the system BIOS firmware | *Replace the CMOS battery*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a display technology most commonly used in modern computing devices?

*LCD* | OLED | Plasma | CRT

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of IPS display technology? (Select 3 answers)

*High color quality* | Fast response times | *Wide viewing angles* | Low color quality | *Slow response times* | Low viewing angles

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers describe the TN display technology? (Select 3 answers)

*Low viewing angles* | *Fast response times* | *Low color quality* | Slow response times | High color quality | Wide viewing angles

[MULTISELECT] The VA display technology can be characterized by: (Select 3 answers)

*High contrast ratios* | Low color quality | *Good viewing angles* | Low contrast ratios | *Good color quality* | Low viewing angles

[MULTISELECT] What are the key features of an OLED display? (Select 3 answers)

Requires backlight to illuminate the screen | Can reach greater brightness levels, especially in well-lit environments | *Enables lightweight, bendable, and ultra-slim screens* | *Works without backlight* | Typically offers longer lifespan and is less vulnerable to burn-in | *Provides exceptional contrast ratio and black levels*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below refer to Mini-LED displays? (Select 3 answers)

*Use a backlight system with smaller, more densely packed LEDs* | *Offer excellent contrast due to refined backlight control* | *Achieve high peak brightness suitable for bright environments* | Do not require a backlight to illuminate the screen | Provide true black levels by turning off individual pixels | Enable greater control of color accuracy due to self-emissive pixels

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] IPS, TN, VA, and OLED are all implementations of LCD display technology.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following devices is capable of performing both input and output functions?

Game controller | Barcode reader | *Touch screen* | Graphics tablet

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the function of digitizer? (Select 3 answers)

A mobile device component responsible for producing output | *A component of a mobile device's screen that allows control of the device with a stylus or fingertip* | *A mobile device component responsible for taking input* | A component of a mobile device that handles the rendering of graphics on the display | *A mobile device component that translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers describe key functions of an inverter? (Select 3 answers)

*Converts DC power into AC power* | Essential for operating DC-powered devices from AC sources | *Used for supplying voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels* | Converts AC power into DC power | *Essential for operating AC-powered devices from DC sources* | Used for supplying voltage to backlights in OLED displays

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Pixel density

The number of individual pixels packed into a given area of the screen

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Refresh rate

The number of times the screen updates the image per second

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Screen resolution

The total number of pixels displayed on the screen

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Color gamut

The range of colors a display can reproduce

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most common cause when a display shows No Signal even though the device is powered on?

Outdated display driver | Faulty GPU | Loose power cable | *Incorrect input source*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user connects their laptop to an external monitor with an HDMI cable, but the monitor displays a distorted image. What should be done first to solve this problem?

Verify correct input selection using the display’s menu | Update the monitor's firmware to the latest version | Restart the connected device to reset display configuration | *Ensure the HDMI cable is not damaged or loose*

[MULTISELECT] Which standard troubleshooting steps can help identify physical cabling issues with a display? (Select 3 answers)

Adjust the cable length to improve signal quality | *Inspect the cable for visible damage* | *Ensure the cable is securely connected to both the device and the display* | *Test the connection with a different cable* | Verify the cable's bend radius is within specifications

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most common symptom of a burnt-out projector bulb?

*The projector powers on, but no image is displayed* | The projector displays a dim or distorted image | The projector fails to detect any input sources | The projector shuts down immediately after powering on

[MULTISELECT] What types of misuse can shorten the life of a projector bulb? (Select 2 answers)

Setting the projector to the highest refresh rate | *Powering off the projector without allowing it to cool down* | Using the projector in a brightly lit room | *Allowing frequent overheating due to poor ventilation* | Bypassing lamp replacement warnings through manual reset

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that their monitor's image appears blurry or unfocused, even after brightness and contrast have been properly adjusted. The text and icons look indistinct. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

Outdated monitor firmware | *Incorrect display resolution setting* | Monitor backlight issue | Video screen burn-in

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A computer monitor used in a retail store's point-of-sale system constantly shows a static application interface with a prominent logo. Over time, a faint ghost of that logo becomes visible even when other applications are open or the display is turned off. What is the most likely cause of this persistent image?

Damaged inverter | Backlight bleed | Afterimage effect | *Display burn-in*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Persistent image retention occurs when static images remain on a screen for extended periods, causing uneven pixel degradation over time. This happens because the same pixels are repeatedly used to display identical visual elements, leading them to wear out faster than surrounding pixels. The key to preventing this issue is to avoid prolonged static content. Regularly changing on-screen elements, using dynamic screensavers, rotating interface layouts, or scheduling periods where the display is turned off or blanked out allow pixels to rest and recover. These preventive measures help minimize uneven wear and reduce the risk of permanent image retention.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is diagnosing an LCD panel where one pixel remains black at all times and never changes color. Which troubleshooting step should be attempted first?

Switch the monitor off and unplug it for an extended period | Apply light, localized pressure to the affected pixel area | Use an app that flashes primary colors or high-contrast patterns | Tap the screen around the affected pixel with a soft object | *None of the above*

[MULTISELECT] A user reports their monitor’s display intermittently goes black for brief periods before returning, resulting in a flashing effect. What are the recommended troubleshooting steps to resolve this problem? (Select 2 answers)

Reboot the system to clear any temporary software glitches | Cycle through available input selections to rule out signal source errors | *Test the connection with a different port if present* | Examine the area for electromagnetic interference that might affect the display | *Check for loose or damaged video cable*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the troubleshooting steps listed below would not address a monitor displaying washed-out or incorrect colors?

Update graphics and display drivers | Verify cable connection integrity | *Adjust the monitor brightness level* | Check color calibration settings | Reset monitor to factory defaults

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] If a monitor with built-in speakers is not producing sound, the common issue could be that:

The system’s microphone is interfering with speaker output | *The sound output in the OS is routed to a different audio playback device* | The audio effects and enhancements settings cause driver conflicts | The monitor’s audio output is blocked by an incompatible audio format

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following actions would help resolve an issue where audio plays through laptop speakers instead of an intended external display? (Select 2 answers)

Turn off automatic audio device switching in system preferences | Adjust the equalizer settings in the audio control panel | *Verify that the monitor supports audio over the selected input* | *Set the external display as the default audio device* | Disable the laptop’s internal speakers in the operating system settings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which hardware component is most likely to cause a dim image on an LCD monitor?

*Malfunctioning backlight* | Damaged inverter board | Loose monitor power cable | Overheating video adapter

[MULTISELECT] A user complains that the image displayed on their monitor is dim. What should be the initial troubleshooting steps? (Select 3 answers)

Enable the monitor’s dynamic contrast feature | *Check the brightness and contrast settings on the monitor* | Adjust the saturation levels in the display settings | *Verify the monitor’s power-saving or eco mode is disabled* | *Inspect the video and power cable connections*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A laptop display appears dim when running on battery power but brightens when plugged into AC power. What is the most probable cause?

The AC adapter overrides adaptive brightness features | The laptop's battery is undercharged and affecting the display | *The laptop is in power-saving mode with reduced brightness* | The display inverter is misconfigured for battery use

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the issues listed below is least likely to cause an intermittent shutdown in a projector?

Insufficient voltage supply | Malfunctioning cooling fan | *Improperly seated video cable* | Dust buildup in air filters

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following actions can help prevent intermittent projector shutdowns? (Select 2 answers)

Using a surge protector in the power connection | Disabling auto-shutdown features in projector settings | *Regularly cleaning or replacing air filters* | *Keeping ventilation openings clear of obstructions* | Decreasing the projector's lamp brightness

[MULTISELECT] A display area on a user's monitor appears significantly smaller than the physical screen size, with black borders on all four sides. Which of the steps listed below would be relevant in troubleshooting this problem? (Select 2 answers)

Adjust the scale and layout options in the OS display settings | *Verify if the resolution is set to the monitor’s native resolution* | *Modify display scaling in the monitor's built-in on-screen menu* | Extend the monitor's viewable area in the OS display settings | Set the scaling in the OS display settings to a higher percentage value

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician installs a new widescreen monitor. The image appears stretched and blurry. Which action should they take first?

Modify the contrast ratio to enhance display sharpness | Decrease the screen scaling percentage in the OS display settings | *Adjust the display resolution to match the monitor’s native resolution* | Update the monitor's firmware to the latest version

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that their monitor displays random artifacts and flickering colored pixels. What is a common hardware cause for this type of distortion?

*Overheating or failing graphics card* | Faulty monitor power supply | Damaged backlight in the monitor | Outdated or corrupted display driver

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A monitor intermittently displays a distorted, garbled image with misaligned colors and jagged text. Which step should a technician take first?

Update the monitor's firmware | Test the monitor with a different power cable | Switch to an alternate video input port | *Reseat or replace the video cable*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An IPv4 address consists of:

*32 bits* | 48 bits | 64 bits | 128 bits

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of:

Octagonal numbers | Binary numbers | Hexadecimal numbers | *Decimal numbers*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to private IP addresses? (Select 3 answers)

*Assigned within a home or business network for internal communication* | Used for devices that need to communicate directly with the Internet and are routable through the global internet infrastructure | *Cannot be routed over the public Internet and are only valid within the confines of a local network* | Unique across the entire Internet, ensuring that devices can be identified and located globally | *Can be reused across different networks (i.e., they do not need to be unique globally)* | Assigned by ISPs to devices for communication over the Internet

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

*Class A range* | Public IP address range | Class B range | *Non-routable (private) IP address range* | Class C range

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

Class A range | Public IP address range | *Class B range* | *Non-routable (private) IP address range* | Class C range

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.168.0.0/16) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

Class A range | Public IP address range | Class B range | *Non-routable (private) IP address range* | *Class C range*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements describe public IP addresses? (Select 3 answers)

*Assigned by ISPs to devices for communication over the Internet* | Can be reused across different networks (i.e., they do not need to be unique globally) | *Unique across the entire Internet, ensuring that devices can be identified and located globally* | Cannot be routed over the public Internet and are only valid within the confines of a local network | *Used for devices that need to communicate directly with the Internet and are routable through the global internet infrastructure* | Assigned within a home or business network for internal communication

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An IPv6 address consists of:

32 bits | 48 bits | 64 bits | *128 bits*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] IPv6 addresses are expressed with the use of:

Decimal numbers | *Hexadecimal numbers* | Binary numbers | Octagonal numbers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] IPv6 was primarily developed to mitigate the issue of:

*Address exhaustion* | Outdated protocols | Routing limitations | Network congestion

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] APIPA allows a Windows host to self-configure an IPv4 address and subnet mask when a DHCP server is unavailable. APIPA uses the address block range from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. APIPA-assigned addresses are valid only for communication within the network segment to which the host is connected. A host with an APIPA-assigned address cannot connect to the Internet.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below describe static IP addresses? (Select 3 answers)

*Provide a permanent address, essential for services requiring consistent reachability* | Assigned automatically by a DHCP server, minimizing user configuration | Commonly used for consumer devices, prioritizing ease of use, security, and cost efficiency | *Must be manually assigned or reserved through administrative tools, requiring more management* | *Ideal for servers, network devices needing a stable address, and remote access applications* | Change periodically, making them unsuitable for hosting services that require a fixed address

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to dynamic IP addresses? (Select 3 answers)

Must be manually assigned or reserved through administrative tools, requiring more management | Provide a permanent address, essential for services requiring consistent reachability | Ideal for servers, network devices needing a stable address, and remote access applications | *Change periodically, making them unsuitable for hosting services that require a fixed address* | *Assigned automatically by a DHCP server, minimizing user configuration* | *Commonly used for consumer devices, prioritizing ease of use, security, and cost efficiency*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A subnet mask is a 32-bit number that divides an IP address into network and host portions, determining the size of a network.

*True* | False

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In a network using subnets, the term ""Default gateway"" refers to a network device (router) that enables exchange of data between hosts residing in different subnets."

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select 3 answers)

*High signal latency* | Lack of signal interference | Cheaper in comparison to terrestrial links | *Interference (weather dependent)* | Low signal latency | *Relatively high cost in comparison to terrestrial links*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is a key advantage of fiber-optic Internet over other broadband types like DSL or cable?

*Offers higher bandwidth and faster speeds with minimal signal loss* | Easier to install in every type of building | Significantly cheaper to deploy over short distances | Immune to hacking and cyberattacks due to its physical properties | Can be easily upgraded to higher speeds without any infrastructure changes

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the statements listed below best describes cable Internet connectivity?

Shared bandwidth among users | Coaxial cabling infrastructure | High-speed data transmission | Not reliant on telephone lines | Often bundled with cable TV | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which physical medium does DSL primarily use for Internet connectivity?

Fiber-optic cabling | Coaxial cabling | Satellite dish | *Copper telephone line*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] How does DSL performance typically compare with other Internet connection types like cable and fiber?

DSL typically provides symmetrical upload and download speeds | *DSL generally offers moderate speeds that decline over distance* | DSL offers higher download speeds than cable and fiber | DSL is immune to network congestion and environmental factors

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is an advantage of using a cellular Internet connection over wired broadband options like fiber-optic or cable?

Provides unlimited bandwidth for streaming and downloading | Offers higher speeds than fiber-optic connections | *Requires no installation of physical cables or infrastructure* | Offers guaranteed, symmetrical upload and download speeds

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below best describes how a WISP network delivers Internet connectivity?

Through the installation of underground fiber-optic cables | *By transmitting radio frequency signals wirelessly from a central tower to subscriber antennas* | Through coaxial cabling infrastructure | By using satellite dishes to communicate with orbiting satellites

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The common limitations of WISP-based connectivity include:

Clear line-of-sight dependency | Susceptibility to RF interference and environmental factors | Limited bandwidth capacity relative to wired broadband | Signal degradation over longer distances | *All of the above*

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Stylus

Precise input and drawing

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Headset

Audio input and output

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Speakers

Audio playback

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Webcam

Video input for conferencing

[MATCHING] From the drop-down list on the right, select the a: Stylus

Passive (direct-touch) or Active (Bluetooth-enabled)

[MATCHING] From the drop-down list on the right, select the a: Headset

Wired (3.5mm port/jack, USB-C, Lightning) or Wireless (Bluetooth)

[MATCHING] From the drop-down list on the right, select the a: Speakers

Wired (auxiliary 3.5mm port/jack, USB) or Wireless (Bluetooth, Wi-Fi)

[MATCHING] From the drop-down list on the right, select the a: Webcam

Wired (USB) or Wireless (Wi-Fi)

[MULTISELECT] Docking stations: (Select 3 answers)

Feature a compact and lightweight design, making them more convenient for mobile use | *Are often designed for specific brands or models, ensuring compatibility with unique laptop features* | *Provide additional hardware capabilities, such as enhanced graphics or storage options, beyond basic connectivity* | *Tend to be larger and less portable, making them more suitable for fixed workspaces* | Primarily expand connectivity options, such as additional USB ports and Ethernet, but do not support advanced hardware features like external graphics or storage | Are generally designed for broad compatibility, working with a wide range of laptop models

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements describe port replicators? (Select 3 answers)

*Are generally designed for broad compatibility, working with a wide range of laptop models* | Provide additional hardware capabilities, such as enhanced graphics or storage options, beyond basic connectivity | *Feature a compact and lightweight design, making them more convenient for mobile use* | Are often designed for specific brands or models, ensuring compatibility with unique laptop features | *Primarily expand connectivity options, such as additional USB ports and Ethernet, but do not support advanced hardware features like external graphics or storage* | Tend to be larger and less portable, making them more suitable for fixed workspaces

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the name of a laptop component that provides the function of a pointing device?

Stylus | Mouse | *Trackpad* | Cursor

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the input devices listed below requires a stylus?

Touchpad | Tracking point | *Drawing pad* | Trackpad

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A track point is a small pointing stick embedded in a keyboard used for precise cursor control.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which software solution is used for centralized mobile device administration?

XDR | *MDM* | DLP | UTM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which mobile device deployment model allows organizations to provide and own the devices while permitting personal use?

BYOD | *COPE* | ZTA | CYOD

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which mobile device deployment model allows employees to use their personal mobile devices to access a company's restricted data and applications?

COPE | CYOD | *BYOD* | COBO

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following allows organizations to manage and enforce mobile device policies and security procedures?

MAC | ZTA | *MDM* | EDR

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that a critical business application is no longer appearing on their company-issued smartphone, while other colleagues still have the application. What is the most likely cause to investigate first?

The user accidentally deleted the application icon from their home screen | *The application may have been remotely uninstalled, or the user's access to it may have been revoked* | The app may be restricted due to the user’s geolocation, causing it to be hidden | The device is in airplane mode, preventing app synchronization

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Mobile device synchronization involves ensuring that data across various applications, such as calendars, contacts, business emails, and cloud storage, is kept consistent between the device and remote servers. It is essential to manage synchronization carefully, especially with mobile data usage, to avoid exceeding data caps. By configuring devices to sync only over Wi-Fi or adjusting sync frequency, users can reduce mobile data consumption while ensuring critical business applications remain up-to-date.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Examples of USB ports that can be found on mobile devices include: (Select all that apply)

*USB-C* | *MicroUSB* | USB Type-A | *MiniUSB* | USB Type-B

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of USB connection method commonly used in modern mobile devices due to its reversible design, fast data transfer, and power capabilities is known as:

USB Type-B | MiniUSB | *USB-C* | MicroUSB | USB Type-A

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which proprietary connector was developed by Apple for its mobile devices?

Thunderbolt | USB-C | FireWire | *Lightning*

[MULTISELECT] NFC enables: (Select all that apply)

*Contactless payment transactions* | Long-range wireless communication | *Device pairing and data exchange* | *Access control and authentication* | Wireless charging of mobile devices

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is a popular, short-range wireless standard for connecting various personal devices in a WPAN?

Zigbee | NFC | *Bluetooth* | Wi-Fi Direct

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below best describes a mobile device's ability to share its Internet connection with other devices?

Pairing | Clustering | *Tethering* | Bonding

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A mobile hotspot is a device that creates a WLAN by acting as a portable WAP for other devices.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following actions are considered best practices for monitoring the health of a mobile device battery? (Select 3 answers)

Always fully discharge the battery before recharging | *Track battery health using built-in OS tools or third-party apps* | Disable battery-saving features to get a more accurate reading of capacity loss | *Monitor charging cycles and battery capacity degradation* | *Check for swelling, overheating, or failure to hold a charge*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the steps listed below should be followed when replacing a mobile device's battery? (Select 3 answers)

"*Follow manufacturer guidelines for safe removal and installation* | *Ensure proper disposal of the old battery according to local regulations for electronic waste* | Use any available universal battery as long as it fits physically within the device | Charge the new battery to 100% immediately after installation and then let it fully discharge to ""condition"" it | *Ensure the replacement battery is compatible with the device model*"

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which action does not conform with recommended practices for diagnosing and repairing a mobile device's keyboard?

Implement proper ESD safety measures by using an anti-static wristband and working on an ESD mat to protect sensitive components from static discharge | Perform comprehensive diagnostics using specialized key testing software to accurately identify any malfunctioning keys | Use appropriate tools (such as precision screwdrivers and plastic pry tools) and OEM-approved replacement parts to avoid causing further damage during the repair | Conduct detailed visual inspections to detect physical damage, debris accumulation, or water exposure on the keyboard | Follow manufacturer guidelines by consulting the service manual or official repair guide to ensure safe disassembly and reassembly of the device | *Leave the device powered on during repair to provide immediate feedback on the exact malfunctioning component, such as a faulty key*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following devices generally offers the easiest and most user-accessible RAM replacement procedure?

Smartphone | Tablet | Gaming console | *Laptop*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the tools listed below can be used to monitor the health and performance of a laptop's storage drive?

*S.M.A.R.T.* | Storage Sense | chkdsk | Disk defragmenter

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What should be the preliminary step of an HDD/SSD replacement procedure?

Power down the device and remove the battery | Format the new drive before installing it | Perform a full system reset before replacing the drive | *Backup the data on the existing drive*

[MULTISELECT] Which actions should be performed first when replacing a faulty wireless card/module in a laptop? (Select 2 answers)

*Power down the laptop and remove the battery* | Label all screws and connectors during disassembly to aid reassembly | *Remove all external peripherals from the device* | Perform a full power cycle of the laptop by turning it off and then on again | Locate the wireless card slot on the motherboard

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following statements regarding a mobile device Bluetooth module is true?

Bluetooth modules are typically located near the device's display and require screen removal for replacement | Once a Bluetooth module is replaced, it will automatically adjust to the device’s current settings without the need for manual pairing | *Bluetooth is usually integrated into the Wi-Fi card or directly into the motherboard* | When replacing a faulty Bluetooth module, as long as the physical connectors match, the new Bluetooth module can come from a different device model

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is a recommended practice for assessing the effectiveness and reliability of biometric components on a mobile device?

Using software tools to track scan success rates, response times, and error logs | Ensuring proper calibration through built-in settings or specialized diagnostic software | Tracking access attempts and failures for security auditing purposes | Updating drivers and firmware to prevent malfunctions caused by outdated software | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After replacing a faulty biometric scanner on a mobile device, which essential step must be performed to ensure that the scanner produces accurate readings?

*Recalibration* | Factory reset | Driver update | Firmware update

[MULTISELECT] A technician is troubleshooting a mobile device's NFC functionality. Which action(s) would help verify the NFC scanner's operational status? (Select all that apply)

*Check for dirt or moisture on the sensor’s surface* | *Test the NFC functionality with a known compatible NFC tag or device* | Update the device's screen brightness, as the NFC sensor relies on ambient light levels | Connect to a Wi-Fi network to test device connectivity | *Ensure NFC is enabled in the device settings*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below correctly describes the typical location of a laptop's Wi-Fi antenna?

On the WLAN module | *Near the top, inside display case* | Inside laptop's case | Typically attached via external expansion port

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following actions would not help in troubleshooting a malfunctioning mobile device camera?

Inspect and clean the camera lens | Verify camera settings and permissions | Test camera functionality in multiple apps | *Adjust the host device's screen brightness* | Check for firmware and software updates

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the items listed below is not recommended for clearing potential blockages from a mobile device microphone?

Lint-free cloth | Soft brush | *Can of compressed air* | Microfiber cloth

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the latest standard for mobile telecommunications?

Wi-Fi 7 | Bluetooth 6.0 | *5G* | WiMAX 3 | None of the above

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary purpose of enabling a mobile hotspot feature on a smartphone?

To transfer files between the phone and other devices | To boost Wi-Fi signal strength in the area | *To share the phone's cellular data connection with other devices* | To allow the phone to access a wired network

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What can be a probable reason why a mobile hotspot might not be working on a device?

The device has a locked SIM card | Wi-Fi is disabled on the connecting device | The device is not compatible with the connecting device | *Cellular data is disabled on the device* | The device is being used to make a phone call

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user is attempting to connect to a workplace Wi-Fi network, but their mobile device shows no available networks. What is the most appropriate first step in troubleshooting this issue?

Restart the wireless access point | Switch to a different frequency band | *Verify that Wi-Fi is enabled on the mobile device* | Change the wireless channel

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the statements listed below does not refer to the characteristic features of a traditional SIM?

Physical card | Installed by inserting the card into a device's SIM slot | Can be moved between devices | Requires physical SIM swap for changing carriers | *None of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An eSIM is a modern alternative to the traditional SIM card. Unlike traditional SIMs, an eSIM is an embedded chip built into the device (not a physical card).

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the Bluetooth authentication process, a PIN serves as a shared secret or passkey used during the pairing process to authenticate the identity of the two devices attempting to connect.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the correct sequence of steps to establish Bluetooth connectivity?

Enable Bluetooth -> Test connectivity -> Find a device for pairing -> Enter identification code -> Enable pairing | Find a device for pairing -> Enable Bluetooth -> Test connectivity -> Enable pairing -> Enter identification code | *Enable Bluetooth -> Enable pairing -> Find a device for pairing -> Enter identification code -> Test connectivity* | Test connectivity -> Enable Bluetooth -> Find a device for pairing -> Enable pairing -> Enter identification code

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A mobile device's built-in functionality enabling the usage of locator applications is called:

*GPS* | LTE | GSM | MDM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is a common issue that can prevent cellular location services from working properly? (Select the best answer)

Location services turned off | Weak cellular signal | Incorrect permissions for location-based applications | *Any of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below accurately describes the advantage of using cellular location services over GPS in certain scenarios?

Cellular location services can provide more precise location data than GPS | *Cellular location services work indoors and in locations where GPS signals are blocked* | Cellular location services use satellite signals for location tracking | Cellular location services do not use network data

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that their mobile phone's battery drains very quickly, even when not in heavy use. The phone is also noticeably warm to the touch. Which of the following is the most likely initial step a technician should try to troubleshoot this problem?

Adjust the device's display timeout settings | Calibrate the battery by fully discharging and recharging | Inspect the phone’s charging port for physical damage | *Check for excessive background application activity*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] If a mobile device's battery shows slight swelling but the device is still functioning, it is safe to continue using it until the swelling becomes more pronounced. The swelling occurs due to gas buildup inside the battery, often caused by internal chemical reactions resulting from age, damage, or overcharging. A possible solution to address this issue is to carefully puncture the battery to release the gas, preventing further expansion.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Backing up a mobile device’s data is always recommended before replacing a broken screen, even if the device appears to be functioning normally.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the first step to take when troubleshooting a mobile device that is not charging properly?

Remove the battery and reinsert it before charging | *Check the charging cable and adapter for physical damage* | Verify the wall outlet is providing power | Consult the device's user manual for charging tips

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tool is best suited to check for power delivery issues when a mobile device is not charging properly?

Voltage tester | Diagnostic software | Cable continuity tester | *USB multimeter*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] To preserve the lifespan of a mobile device's battery, it is best to regularly allow the battery to fully discharge before recharging it back to 100%. For modern mobile devices, this practice helps preserve the lifespan of the battery and prevents capacity degradation over time.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports their mobile device frequently loses Wi-Fi connection or cannot connect to any networks. What is the best first troubleshooting step?

Remove and reinsert the device's SIM card | Perform a hard reboot (forced restart) of the device | Forget all networks from the device's saved Wi-Fi list and try to reconnect | *Restart the device’s Wi-Fi adapter to reset the connection*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] If a mobile device intermittently loses Wi-Fi connection, which action will have no effect on improving its stability?

Move closer to the Wi-Fi router or access point | Restart the Wi-Fi adapter on the device | Check for and reduce Wi-Fi interference from other devices | Forget and reconnect to the Wi-Fi network | *Disable mobile data to prioritize Wi-Fi connection*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports their mobile phone has no cellular signal (no bars) and cannot make or receive calls or texts. What is the most common initial step a technician should try?

Perform a network settings reset on the device | Clear the device's cached data related to cellular services | *Toggle airplane mode on and off to reestablish signal* | Verify that the cellular data plan is active and not exhausted

[MULTISELECT] A user accidentally spills water on their smartphone. What actions should the user take to minimize the damage? (Select all that apply)

*Leave the device powered off until it dries* | *Remove the battery if possible (after disconnecting power)* | *Disconnect any external accessories or cables* | *Remove the SIM card and memory card if accessible* | Use a direct heat source (e.g., a hairdryer) to dry the device

[MULTISELECT] What are the best practices for drying a smartphone that has been exposed to liquid? (Select 3 answers)

*Apply desiccant-based drying methods to remove moisture* | Use direct heat source (oven, microwave, direct sunlight) to dry the device | *Keep the device turned off for at least 24–48 hours before testing* | Submerge the device in uncooked rice to absorb moisture | Blow compressed air into charging ports or speakers to remove liquid | *Place the device in a sealed bag with silica gel packets*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below would have little to no impact on preventing a mobile device from overheating?

Keeping the device out of intense heat sources | Using an original or certified device charger | Closing unused background applications | Reducing screen brightness | Enabling built-in power-saving features | Keeping the device’s operating system and installed apps up to date | *Activating dark mode to reduce screen glare*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following measures reduce the risk of digitizer issues on a mobile device? (Select 3 answers)

*Avoid dropping the device or applying excessive pressure to the screen* | *Use a high-quality case and screen guard for impact resistance* | *Keep the device away from moisture and extreme temperatures* | Limit the use of the stylus to prevent unnecessary wear on the touchscreen | Use a thicker screen protector to shield against extreme impacts

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After dropping their tablet, a user notices that a section of the touchscreen no longer registers any input. What is the first troubleshooting step they should take?

Check if the device is overheating | Apply light, localized pressure to the affected area | *Power cycle the device* | Remove the screen protector and test the touch response

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below would be of help while troubleshooting a non-responsive touchscreen on a mobile device?

Perform a soft reset (restart the device using a key combination) | Remove screen protector and clean the touchscreen surface | Boot into safe mode to check for app conflicts | Perform a factory reset to restore default settings (after backing up data | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician suspects a mobile device's USB-C port is physically damaged because it only charges when the cable is held at a specific angle. What is the most appropriate next step?

Replace the charging port | *Test with a known working cable* | Retry plugging in after removing the device case | Switch to a wireless charger

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following symptoms may indicate that a mobile device has been compromised by malicious software? (Select 3 answers)

*Frequent pop-ups or intrusive ads* | *Unauthorized activity (messages, calls, or data usage)* | Device failing to recognize a SIM card | *Unusual performance issues (slowdown, crashes, freezing, battery drain)* | Intermittent loss of cellular signal

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which approach works best for eliminating persistent malware from a mobile device?

Uninstalling suspicious or unknown apps | Performing a hard reset of the device | Troubleshooting in safe mode | Running a reputable anti-malware scan | *Performing a factory reset of the device*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Installing mobile apps from sources such as Apple’s App Store or Google Play significantly reduces the risk of malware infections.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a common fix for cursor drift?

Modify touch sensitivity settings | Restart the touchscreen driver service | Test the device with a stylus (if applicable) | *Calibrate the touchscreen*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user is unable to install a new app on their mobile phone. Which option should be considered first when attempting to resolve this problem?

Verify app store login status | Clear the app store cache and data | Update the OS to the latest version | *Check available storage space*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] While sideloading an app onto an Android phone for testing purposes, a user receives a notification that the installation has been blocked due to security settings. What must be changed to proceed with the installation?

"Grant administrator privileges to the app | Disable app verification in Google Play settings | *Enable the ""Install unknown apps"" or ""Unknown sources"" setting* | Turn on developer options in system settings"

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company’s MDM administrator receives multiple tickets from users stating that they cannot install updates for existing apps or download new ones. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

App store outage | Pending security updates | Compatibility issues | *Policy enforcement*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports the stylus has stopped responding on their touchscreen device. What is the first practical troubleshooting step a technician should try?

Reboot the device to reset touch inputs | Clean the screen protector with a soft cloth | Reset the device’s Wi-Fi connection | *Verify the stylus battery status*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A device’s stylus functions intermittently, while the touchscreen responds normally to finger input. Which troubleshooting action should be considered first?

Attempt to reconnect the stylus to the device | Recalibrate the touchscreen for proper alignment | *Inspect the stylus tip for damage or wear* | Test the input after removing the screen protector

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user attempts to connect a Bluetooth stylus to their tablet but it does not appear in the device’s Bluetooth list. What device mode should the user confirm the stylus is in?

Input mode | Discovery mode | Sync mode | *Pairing mode*

[MULTISELECT] What factor(s) can contribute to unexpected performance drops on a mobile device? (Select all that apply)

*Outdated operating system software* | *Too many background applications* | Enabled battery saver mode | *Malware consuming system resources* | *Excessive app data and cache buildup*

[MULTISELECT] A user complains their mobile phone has become increasingly slow, with apps taking a long time to open and frequently freezing. Which steps should a technician try first when troubleshooting this issue? (Select 2 answers)

Review battery usage by apps | *Clear cached data* | Run a benchmark test on the device | *Uninstall unused apps* | Enable power-saving mode

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A mobile device experiences a sudden, significant drop in performance, accompanied by unusual pop-ups and battery drain. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Low battery health | Excessive push notifications | Disabled pop-up blocker | *Malware infection*

[MULTISELECT] When applications take an unusually long time to launch on a mobile device, which factors are typically the most immediate and direct causes of this issue? (Select 2 answers)

Device overheating from prolonged use | *Heavy load on the CPU* | Real-time encryption and decryption of data | Device storage nearing full capacity | *Insufficient memory*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most common motherboard form factor used in desktop PCs?

*ATX* | mATX | ITX | mITX

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which motherboard form factor would be the optimal choice for a compact or budget-friendly desktop build?

LPX/NLX | BTX | E-ATX | *microATX*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a low-power consumption, small form factor motherboard type used in industrial and embedded PC applications?

NLX | *ITX* | ATX | LPX

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following motherboard form factors is the smallest?

*ITX* | E-ATX | EE-ATX | microATX

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] PCIe is a high-speed, serial expansion bus designed as a replacement for:

VGA | *PCI* | IDE | ATA

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In PCIe architecture, a lane is a single, full-duplex, point-to-point serial communication path composed of two pairs of differential signaling wires, where one pair is used for transmitting data and the other pair for receiving data. The PCIe labeling (×1, ×4, ×8, ×12, ×16, and ×32) indicates the number of lanes available in an interface. The throughput of a single lane (as indicated by ×1) is determined by the specific PCIe generation and is typically measured in terms of gigatransfers per second (GT/s) or its equivalent bandwidth in MB/s. The multiplier (×) then provides a straightforward way to calculate the maximum theoretical aggregate bandwidth for the interface.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the main power connector used in modern ATX power supplies?

16-pin connector | 20-pin connector | *24-pin connector* | 28-pin connector

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following connectors provide(s) additional power to the CPU? (Select all that apply)

*4-pin 12V connector* | 8-pin PCIe connector | *4+4-pin 12V connector* | 6-pin PCIe connector | *8-pin 12V connector*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to auxiliary connector types most commonly used for supplying additional power to graphics cards? (Select 2 answers)

8-pin 12V connector | *6-pin PCIe connector* | 4+4-pin 12V connector | *8-pin PCIe connector* | 4-pin 12V connector

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which motherboard connector features an L-shape design that prevents its improper insertion?

*SATA* | M.2 | eSATA | PCIe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Adding an eSATA device to a PC can be done either by attaching the device cable's connector directly to the motherboard's integrated I/O panel, plugging it in via eSATA port on a modular bracket mounted on the back of the PC case, or attaching it directly to a dedicated slot on the motherboard.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Inside a PC case, connector cables from a power switch, reset switch, or LEDs on the front/top panel of the case attach to their corresponding slots located on the main power supply unit.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The installation of USB ports located on the front panel of a computer case requires plugging in internal USB cable connectors into compatible groupings of metal pins (a.k.a. headers) on the motherboard.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following slots/ports on the PC motherboard enable(s) the connection of an M.2 device? (Select all that apply)

*B key slot* | SATA port | *M key slot* | USB slot | PCIe slot | *B+M key slot*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Motherboards used in laptops and mobile devices can be characterized by their proprietary design, which means that replacing a motherboard in such devices typically requires a part designed specifically for the make and model of the device.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the main CPU manufacturers for personal computers? (Select 2 answers)

ASUS | Nvidia | *AMD* | EVGA | *Intel*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] High-end PC motherboards typically feature microprocessor sockets that are compatible with CPUs from different manufacturers.

True | *False*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of a dedicated server motherboard? (Select 3 answers)

*Supports ECC RAM* | Designed for tower case installation | *Supports multiple CPUs (multi-socket motherboard)* | *Designed for limited space (rack-mount / blade)* | Typically features a single CPU socket | Supports non-ECC RAM

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below can be used to describe the characteristics of a typical desktop motherboard? (Select 3 answers)

*Supports non-ECC RAM* | *Typically features a single CPU socket* | Designed for limited space (rack-mount / blade) | Supports multiple CPUs (multi-socket motherboard) | *Designed for tower case installation* | Supports ECC

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of TPM? (Select 3 answers)

Supports multiple devices, users, and systems across a network, not tied to a single device | Can be a dedicated network-attached appliance, a PCIe card, or a USB device | *Typically embedded directly into consumer devices (e.g., motherboards in PCs and laptops)* | Designed for centralized cryptographic key management, supporting high volumes of cryptographic operations | *Provides security that is specifically tied to a single device* | *Offers basic cryptographic functions, such as key storage and platform integrity support*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers highlight key features that differentiate PCL from PostScript? (Select 3 answers)

Slower printing performance compared to PostScript due to complex processing | *Generally more efficient for high-volume, everyday printing tasks than PostScript* | Better suited for professional design, desktop publishing, and graphic arts than PostScript | *Less suited for professional graphics or highly detailed printing tasks than PostScript* | More resource-intensive than PostScript (requires more printer memory and processing power) | *Less demanding on printer memory and processing power than PostScript*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below accurately describe PostScript? (Select 3 answers)

Less suited for professional graphics or highly detailed printing tasks than PCL | *Slower printing performance compared to PCL due to complex processing* | *Better suited for professional design, desktop publishing, and graphic arts than PCL* | Generally more efficient for high-volume, everyday printing tasks than PCL | Less demanding on printer memory and processing power than PCL | *More resource-intensive than PCL (requires more printer memory and processing power)*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to software embedded within an MFD that provides basic instructions for its hardware to initialize and execute tasks?

Device driver | Middleware | Print spooler | *Firmware*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the options listed below would typically be used to set up a direct, wired connection between an MFD and a single computer host?

PS/2 | RJ45 | *USB* | PCIe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which connectivity option would be the most suitable in a scenario where multiple users on a wired network need access to MFD functions?

Serial port | *Ethernet* | Parallel port | KVM switch

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to the most common wireless connectivity option for modern MFDs?

4G/5G | IR | NFC | *802.11x* | RFID

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below does not describe a disadvantage related to a printer share?

Each client computer needs to install the correct printer drivers for the shared printer | Only available when the host computer is turned on and connected to the network | Can become a bottleneck, especially with many users or large print jobs | *Typically involves a higher cost and setup complexity* | Offers limited control over user access, print quotas, and monitoring | If the host computer crashes or has issues, the printer becomes unavailable to everyone

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following solutions would ensure the highest availability of the network printing service?

Printer share | *Print server* | Local network share | Public folder

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A printer's capability to print on both sides of a paper sheet is referred to as duplex printing.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Common printer configuration options include paper orientation settings that allow switching between Portrait mode (vertical layout) and Landscape mode (horizontal layout). Some printers may include additional orientation options, allowing the printout to be rotated by a specific degree. For most printers, the default paper orientation is Portrait mode.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which printer setting allows configuration of a printout based on its paper size, type, or weight?

Media type settings | Print scaling settings | *Tray settings* | Paper orientation settings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which print quality setting typically offers the lowest resolution, fastest print speed, and most efficient toner or ink usage?

Standard | Default | Automatic | *Draft*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Examples of security measures that can be implemented on a multifunction device or printer include:

Login-based access via system software to ensure only authorized users can operate the device (user authentication) | Integrated ID card readers requiring users to authenticate using company-issued badges (badging) | Tracking of all printer activities, including user interactions, print jobs, and attempted access (audit logs) | PIN printing, requiring users to enter a numeric passcode before releasing print jobs (secured prints) | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which option allows an MFD to send a scanned document via an SMTP server?

*Email* | SMB | Print from cloud | Fax

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which network scan service enables scanned documents to be saved directly to shared folders on a local network?

FTP | Local copy function | LDAP | *SMB*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user wants to scan a document from a multifunction printer and access it remotely from a personal online storage account. Which feature should be configured?

Web print service | Scan to network folder | Network file share | *Cloud service*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which MFD/MFP component optimizes processing of multi-page documents?

Feed assembly | *ADF* | Transfer roller | System tray

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A flatbed scanner is a device that uses a flat glass surface on which documents, photos, or other materials are placed face down while a scanning mechanism moves underneath to capture the image.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which DNS database record type returns a 32-bit IP address?

MX | AAAA | CNAME | *A* | PTR

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The DNS AAAA record maps a hostname to:

IPv4 address | Mail server | *IPv6 address* | Canonical name

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which DNS database record type allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address?

MX | *CNAME* | AAAA | PTR

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the DNS database records listed below maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain?

SPF | NS | *MX* | PTR

[MULTISELECT] What is the function of a DNS TXT record? (Select 2 answers)

Resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups | Maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain | *Used to store text-based data associated with a domain* | *Not used to direct any traffic* | Allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is used to sign an outbound email message with a digital signature?

SPF | *DKIM* | DMARC | PEM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an email authentication mechanism that allows domain owners to specify, via DNS records, which IP addresses are authorized to send emails on behalf of their domain?

DMARC | PEM | DKIM | *SPF*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following acronyms refers to a policy framework that allows domain owners to specify how email receivers should handle messages that fail authentication checks?

DKIM | SPF | PEM | *DMARC*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The duration for which a DHCP client is authorized to use a dynamically assigned IP address from a DHCP server is known as:

Allocation | *Lease* | Interval | Reservation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the standard DHCP term for a permanent IP address assignment made by the server to a specific device?

Binding | Fixed lease | Pinning | *Reservation*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the correct DHCP term for the defined pool of IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign to clients?

Range | Block | *Scope* | Group

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A DHCP server's IP exclusion configuration option allows network administrators to remove a single IP address or a range of IP addresses from the pool of addresses automatically assigned to requesting DHCP clients. IP exclusion prevents DHCP clients from receiving IP addresses that are statically assigned to critical network devices, such as servers or wireless printers.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below refers to a logical grouping of computers that allows hosts to communicate as if they are on the same broadcast domain, regardless of their physical location?

VPN | Intranet | Screened subnet | *VLAN*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A system that uses a public network (such as the Internet) to create secure, encrypted connections between remote locations is called:

WWAN | *VPN* | PAN | VLAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the function of FTP?

Email service | Directory access | Serving of web pages | *File exchange*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between networked computers is called:

RDP | *SSH* | Telnet | SCP

[MULTISELECT] Telnet: (Select 3 answers)

Encrypts network connection | *Provides username & password authentication* | *Transmits data in an unencrypted form* | Does not provide authentication | *Enables remote login and command execution*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a secure replacement for Telnet?

*SSH* | Rlogin | rsh | SNMP

[MULTISELECT] The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers)

*Sending email messages between mail servers* | Name resolution services | Serving of web pages | Retrieving email messages from mail servers | *Sending email messages from a client device*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following refers to a system that translates domain names to IP addresses and stores other domain-related records?

DHCP | ARP | WINS | *DNS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which network protocol provides an automated alternative to manual IP address allocation?

APIPA | NAT | *DHCP* | Zeroconf

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the protocols listed below is used to retrieve the contents of an Internet page from a web server?

IMAP | *HTTP* | FTP | SMTP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] POP3 is used for:

Name resolution | Sending email messages | File exchange | *Email retrieval*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to IMAP? (Select 2 answers)

*Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3* | *Serves the same function as POP3* | Enables sending email messages from client devices | Offers less functions than POP3 | Enables email exchange between mail servers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to an API that enables communication between hosts on a LAN?

DNS | TCP/IP | *NetBIOS* | DHCP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The function of the NetBT protocol is to allow NetBIOS services to be used over TCP/IP networks.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] LDAP is an example of:

Authentication protocol | *Directory access protocol* | Address resolution protocol | File exchange protocol

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which protocol secures web traffic with SSL/TLS encryption to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of the data exchanged between a user's browser and a web server?

SFTP | IPsec | SSH | *HTTPS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] SMB is a protocol used for:

*File and printer sharing between devices on a network* | Collecting diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices | Routing network traffic between different subnets | Managing and allocating IP addresses within a network

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of SMB/CIFS? (Select 2 answers)

Designed for Linux-based environments | Optimized for secure file sharing over the Internet | *Primarily used in Microsoft Windows environments* | Intended for voice and multimedia communication over IP networks | *Used to provide shared access to files, directories, and devices*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Microsoft-proprietary protocol enables remote access and administration of another networked host through a graphical interface?

VDI | *RDP* | SSH | VNC

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] UDP is a connection-oriented protocol using a three-way handshake, which is a set of initial steps required for establishing a network connection. UDP supports error checking, flow control (managing the amount of data that is being sent), sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order), and retransmission of lost packets. Example applications of UDP include the transmission of text and image data.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] TCP is an example of a connectionless protocol. Since TCP does not use a three-way handshake to establish a network connection, it is considered an unreliable or best-effort protocol. Example applications of TCP include the transmission of video and audio streaming data.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] When a web browser needs to access a website identified by its domain name, which type of server provides the IP address required for the connection?

*DNS server* | Proxy server | DHCP server | Web server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary function of a DHCP server?

Mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses | *Assigning dynamic IP addresses to clients* | Monitoring IP address conflicts | Logging IP address assignment history

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company wants its employees to access, store, and manage shared documents centrally over a network. Which type of server should they implement?

Mail server | *File server* | Print server | Database server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of server does not primarily store files but facilitates document output?

Web server | Application server | *Print server* | Database server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company requires a server that supports the SMTP and IMAP protocols for managing electronic messages. Which type of server should they implement?

Chat server | IM server | *Mail server* | VoIP server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of server is primarily responsible for collecting diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices?

Jump server | C2 server | *Syslog server* | ICS server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company wants to go beyond hosting static content (such as HTML documents) and enable users to interact with web applications. Which type of server would be the most suitable for achieving this goal?

Remote access server | *Web server* | Media streaming server | Game server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which part of the AAA security architecture deals with the verification of the identity of a person or process?

Auditing | *Authentication* | Authorization | Accounting

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the AAA security architecture, the process of granting or denying access to resources is known as:

*Authorization* | Accounting | Auditing | Authentication

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the AAA security architecture, the process of tracking accessed services and logging resource consumption is called:

Authentication | Auditing | *Accounting* | Authorization

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which AAA solution uses UDP as its transport protocol, combines authentication and authorization, and is commonly deployed for network access control such as VPNs and Wi-Fi authentication?

*RADIUS* | LDAP | TACACS+ | Kerberos

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the AAA solutions listed below relies on TCP, separates authentication, authorization, and accounting, and is commonly used for device administration in enterprise networks?

OAuth | *TACACS+* | SAML | RADIUS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary function of SQL Server?

Application server | Network protocol | C2 server | *Database management system*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which server type provides time synchronization services across devices within a network?

*NTP* | VTP | NNTP | RTP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which appliance monitors inbound electronic communication and applies filtering rules to block unwanted or malicious messages from entering the network?

Content filter | Mail server | Antivirus software | *Spam gateway*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a network security solution providing a single point of protection against various types of threats?

IDP | AV | *UTM* | NGFW

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A network hardware or software solution designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources is referred to as:

Content filter | Proxy server | *Load balancer* | Domain controller

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a computer system or an application that acts as an intermediary between a client computer and the Internet by relaying and filtering requests?

Network gateway | Content filter | Firewall | *Proxy server*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary purpose of a SCADA system?

Managing and automating network infrastructure | Implementing biometric access control for secure facilities | *Monitoring and controlling industrial processes remotely* | Controlling humidity, temperature, and air quality

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a network of interconnected devices equipped with sensors (such as wearable tech or home automation devices) that can interact with each other to perform various tasks and functions?

ICS | PAN | *IoT* | SoC

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Wireless connectivity issues can be caused by physical obstructions and electronic interference. Dense objects like heavy household items or large appliances can weaken Wi-Fi signals, especially when using the 5 GHz frequency, which has a shorter range and weaker penetration through walls and obstacles. Positioning the router in a central, elevated, and open location helps improve coverage. Electronic interference from devices such as microwaves, cordless phones, or Bluetooth equipment can disrupt signals, particularly on the 2.4 GHz band. In such cases, switching to the 5 GHz band or selecting a less congested wireless channel can help reduce interference and improve connection stability.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] When troubleshooting intermittent wireless connectivity, what tool can a technician use to measure signal strength and detect potential dead zones?

Bandwidth tester | Power level controls | *Wi-Fi analyzer* | Network mapper

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user’s laptop connects to the wireless network, but the connection is unstable and frequently drops, even after forcing reconnection and restarting the system. Other nearby devices on the same network are functioning normally. Which action should the technician take to resolve the problem?

Scan the laptop for malware and viruses | Check the router's logs for unusual activity | *Update or reinstall the laptop's wireless adapter driver* | Connect to a different Wi-Fi network

[MULTISELECT] Which troubleshooting steps can help resolve intermittent wireless connectivity caused by external interference? (Select 2 answers)

Restarting the wireless access point | Disabling SSID broadcast | Reducing the number of connected devices | *Switching frequency bands* | *Changing the wireless channel*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During a network performance audit, a technician observes that several wired workstations are consistently negotiating connections at 100 Mbps, despite having Gigabit Ethernet NICs and being connected to a Gigabit switch. What is the most probable physical layer cause for this speed limitation?

Outdated firmware on the network switch | Excessive network traffic causing congestion | *Older cabling type not supporting higher transfer rates* | Switch port speed manually set to 100 Mbps

[MULTISELECT] Which symptoms are most likely to indicate that slow network speeds are caused by network congestion rather than a hardware or software issue? (Select 2 answers)

The issue occurs intermittently without a clear pattern | The slowness affects only one specific device | The issue results from throttling imposed by the ISP | *The slowness is noticeable across multiple devices* | *The issue occurs during specific, busy periods* | The slowness affects only specific types of network traffic

[MULTISELECT] A user notices their online gaming experience suffers from high network latency and lag spikes. What common internal factors on their computer could explain these symptoms, particularly if they have many installed programs? (Select 2 answers)

Internal hardware components are overheating, causing frame drops | *Ongoing background processes or updates are slowing down the network connection* | Remote game servers are overloaded with high traffic | Video graphics options in game are set way above recommended settings for optimal performance | *Other, currently active applications are consuming bandwidth*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most likely cause of limited network connectivity if a Windows machine is assigned an IP address in the 169.254.x.x range?

DNS | *DHCP* | NAT | DDoS

"[MULTISELECT] An administrator is troubleshooting a computer showing ""Limited Connectivity."" The network icon in the Windows taskbar displays an ""X"" symbol, indicating no active network connection. Which of the actions listed below should the administrator take first? (Select 2 answers)"

Renew the IP address via command line | *Verify the network adapter status* | Run the built-in network diagnostics tool | *Check the physical network connection* | Update the network adapter driver

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A network admin can successfully ping a remote host by its IP address but cannot do so by its domain name. What is the most probable cause of this issue?

NIC | ICMP | *DNS* | DHCP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is jitter in the context of network performance?

Loss of data packets | Signal attenuation | *Variation in packet delay* | Packet fragmentation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which network application types are most sensitive to jitter?

Web browsing | Email | File transfer | *Real-time*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During a VoIP call, a user hears their own voice echoing back to them with a slight delay. Which network performance issue is this symptom most indicative of?

*High latency* | Jitter | Packet loss | Audio syncing

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most likely cause of choppy or distorted audio during a VoIP call?

Outdated VoIP software | *Jitter* | Faulty microphone hardware | Corrupted audio codec

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary purpose of a jitter buffer in VoIP systems?

To compress audio data | To improve call stability | To reduce packet loss | *To even out packet delays*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The term ""Port flapping"" refers to a condition where a network port light, typically on a switch or router, rapidly alternates between up and down states. In such cases, the port’s status LED may blink erratically as it continuously loses and regains connection."

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to the primary causes of port flapping? (Select 2 answers)

*Mismatched speed and duplex settings* | Outdated device firmware | Excessive traffic on a network device | *Loose, faulty, or unsupported network cabling* | Incorrect network topology design

[MULTISELECT] Which network issues are directly linked to port flapping? (Select 2 answers)

*Intermittent connectivity* | *Degraded data transfer speeds* | High network latency | Permanent loss of connectivity | Excessive bandwidth usage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the recommended first step when troubleshooting port flapping?

*Check physical connections* | Restart the device | Disable all unused physical ports | Update the device's firmware

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What condition may lead to increased latency on a network?

Network congestion due to excessive traffic | Physical distance between the sender and receiver of data | Wireless interference and signal degradation | Outdated or inefficient network hardware | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the solutions listed below has no direct impact on decreasing network latency?

Using wired connections instead of wireless when possible | Reducing network congestion | *Implementing VLANs to segment network traffic* | Reducing physical distance between network devices | Upgrading hardware and infrastructure

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of network cabling is most susceptible to external interference?

*UTP* | STP | Fiber optic | Coaxial

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which network cabling provides immunity against external interference?

UTP | STP | *Fiber optic* | Coaxial

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] For a wireless client to successfully connect and authenticate to a Wi-Fi network, the security type (e.g., WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3) and encryption type (e.g., TKIP or AES) settings on the connecting host must match the corresponding wireless security settings on a WAP.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following can result in an authentication failure even if the username and password are typed correctly?

Expired user password | User account locked out | Disabled or deleted user account | Time synchronization issues | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is called to a small office where users are experiencing random Internet connection drops. Network cabling has been checked and confirmed to be intact, and ping tests to the local gateway remain successful even during the outages. The office uses a commercial-grade router and switch, both of which pass diagnostics, but the router's admin interface logs show repeated signal loss on the WAN side. What is the most appropriate next step?

Restart the router | Modify firewall rules on the router | Run Internet speed test | *Contact the ISP*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is referred to as:

PAN | *LAN* | MAN | WAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is known as:

MAN | LAN | WMN | *WAN*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The Internet is an example of a large public WAN.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices is called:

BAN | *PAN* | SAN | CAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city is referred to as:

WAN | SAN | *MAN* | CAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following acronyms refers to a dedicated local network consisting of devices that provide centralized data access?

SDN | NAS | iSCSI | *SAN*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which term correctly describes a local network consisting of multiple computers and peripheral devices that communicate with each other using high-frequency radio waves across the area of a building or campus?

WPAN | WMAN | *WLAN* | WWAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During the process of network cable termination, a crimper tool is used for attaching connectors onto cables by compressing the connector's metal contacts onto the exposed wires.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tool would be the most appropriate for removing electrical insulation cover from electric wires?

Needle-nose pliers | Crimper | Snips | *Cable stripper*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Wi-Fi analyzer is not designed for:

Measuring the strength of the Wi-Fi signal | Detecting interference from other devices or networks | *Capturing and inspecting network traffic data* | Analyzing wireless channel usage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which hardware tool is specifically designed to trace and identify individual wires within a cable bundle?

Cable certifier | Line tester | *Toner & probe kit* | Wire mapper

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the tools listed below is used for attaching network cables to a patch panel?

Cable crimper | *Punchdown tool* | Cable certifier | Needle-nose pliers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a hardware tool used to verify the integrity and connectivity of network cables?

*Cable tester* | Toner & probe kit | Signal tracer | Bandwidth tester

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which hardware tool is used to test the functionality of a NIC?

Signal tracer | Continuity tester | Multimeter | *Loopback plug*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which device enables network traffic monitoring without interrupting the data flow?

Transceiver | Repeater | Ethernet adapter | *Network tap*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the standard voltage range for most residential and commercial power outlets in the United States?

*110-120 VAC* | 120-140 VAC | 210-220 VAC | 220-240 VAC

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the standard voltage range used for power outlets in Europe?

110-120 VAC | 120-140 VAC | 210-220 VAC | *220-240 VAC*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A PSU's operation can be adjusted to the supplied voltage either by using a manual voltage selector on the back of the unit or automatically by the device. PSUs equipped with a manual voltage selector are referred to as fixed-input devices, while PSUs offering automatic voltage adjustment are known as auto-switching PSUs.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of electric current is supplied to most of the internal PC components?

AC | HVDC | *DC* | PFC

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following PC components use circuits that operate at voltages up to 3.3V? (Select 2 answers)

*NVMe M.2 slots* | *RAM slots* | Optical drives | Case fans | Graphics cards

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the PC components listed below operate on the 5V voltage rail?

Graphics cards | RAM slots | CPUs | *USB ports and devices*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following PC components typically draw power from the 12V voltage rail provided by the power supply? (Select 3 answers)

RAM slots | *Mechanical parts (e.g., case fans, motors, actuators)* | *Graphics cards* | *PCIe expansion cards* | Motherboard chipsets | USB ports and devices

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Modern ATX motherboards use a 24-pin power connector. Some power supplies feature a 20+4-pin connector to maintain compatibility with both 20-pin and 24-pin motherboards. The 20+4 connector can be used fully assembled for 24-pin motherboards or with the 4-pin section left unattached for 20-pin motherboards.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the devices listed below would be required for a load-balancing setup where supplied power is split between multiple PSUs that automatically share the load and provide backup in case of a PSU failure?

Standby UPS | *Redundant power supply* | Dual-power supply | Managed PDU

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In a modular power supply, the cables can be detached and reattached as needed, providing the flexibility to only use the cables required for the system, which helps reduce cable clutter and promotes better airflow within the computer case.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The power output rating of a PSU is measured in a unit known as:

Volt | Hertz | Amp | *Watt*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] When selecting a PSU with energy efficiency in mind, the most important factor to consider is the 80 PLUS certification. This program rates PSUs based on their efficiency at various load levels, ensuring that they meet a minimum efficiency threshold. To maximize energy efficiency, reduce wasted energy, and lower long-term electricity costs, it is advisable to choose a PSU with a higher 80 PLUS rating, such as Gold, Platinum, or Titanium. These certifications indicate that the PSU operates more efficiently, reducing both energy loss and operational costs.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A prepackaged set of laser printer spare parts, typically including components with a limited lifespan that must be replaced to maintain consistent performance and prevent failures, is commonly referred to as:

Hardware replacement bundle | Printer service set | *Maintenance kit* | Service component pack

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Before installing a new toner cartridge, it is recommended to gently rock it back and forth several times in a horizontal motion. This step facilitates the uniform distribution of toner powder within the cartridge, which in turn contributes to a consistent print density throughout the lifespan of the cartridge.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below refers to the process of adjusting a printer so that its output aligns accurately with the intended image or text and matches the expected color and print quality?

Fine-tuning | Validation | Standardization | *Calibration*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate for cleaning the inside of a laser printer? (Select 3 answers)

*Toner vacuum* | General household cleaners | Can of compressed air | Paper towels | Regular vacuum | *Toner cleaning wipes* | *Isopropyl alcohol*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In an inkjet printer, the replaceable component used in the process of applying color to the page is called:

Thermal printhead | *Ink cartridge* | Drum unit | Transfer ribbon

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an inkjet printer component that sprays microscopic droplets of ink through nozzles to form text or images on paper?

Imaging drum | Corona wire | *Printhead* | Fuser assembly

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A rubberized cylindrical component that grips and moves paper through the printing process in an inkjet printer is referred to as:

Carriage | *Roller* | Feeder | Input tray

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which component of an inkjet printer is responsible for picking up individual sheets of paper from the input tray and feeding them into the print path?

Output tray | *Feeder* | Carriage | Transfer belt

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following are valid methods for cleaning an inkjet printhead? (Select 2 answers)

Wiping the nozzles with a dry cotton swab to avoid introducing moisture | Applying acetone to the printhead for cleaning | *Running a built-in cleaning function from the printer settings menu* | *Wiping the nozzles with a lint-free cloth or swab dampened with distilled water or isopropyl alcohol* | Blowing compressed air into the nozzles at high pressure

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Most modern inkjet printers are designed to allow cartridge replacement while powered on, ensuring proper detection and alignment of new cartridges. While turning off the printer may be recommended for certain models, it is not universally required for ink cartridge replacement.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary goal of inkjet calibration?

To reduce ink consumption per page | *To correct color printing errors and misalignments* | To increase the speed of printing | To ensure compatibility with third-party ink cartridges

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What should be checked for if an inkjet printer experiences frequent paper jams?

Obstruction in the paper path caused by foreign objects | Incorrect paper type or size | Paper tray overloading | Dirty, worn, or damaged paper feed rollers | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a thermal printer's component responsible for moving paper through the printer during the printing process?

Transfer belt | Paper guide | *Feed assembly* | Platen roller

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following steps are part of the feed assembly maintenance procedure? (Select 3 answers)

Replace the thermal paper roll | Clean the heating element with isopropyl alcohol | Reset the printer settings to factory defaults | *Inspect the feed assembly for worn-out or misaligned rollers* | *Clean the rollers with a lint-free cloth and isopropyl alcohol to remove dust and debris* | *If paper feeding issues persist, consider replacing the feed rollers*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Thermal printers use a special type of paper coated with a heat-sensitive layer that responds to the heat of the printhead. When heated, this layer darkens, enabling the printer to produce text or images without using ink or toner.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Maintaining a thermal printer involves several key practices to ensure optimal performance and longevity. To prevent premature fading and maintain print quality, it is recommended to store thermal paper in a cool, dry place away from direct sunlight and heat sources. The heating element, responsible for creating the image, should be periodically cleaned using a lint-free cloth or a specialized cleaning card lightly dampened with isopropyl alcohol to remove any residue buildup. Furthermore, it is important to regularly remove dust and debris from the rollers and paper feed areas by using compressed air or a soft brush to prevent paper jams and ensure smooth operation.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which printer type uses an inked ribbon to create text or images on paper?

Inkjet | Thermal | *Impact* | Laser

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of printing paper is designed to create duplicate copies during the printing process?

Thermal | Duplex | *Multipart* | None of the above

[MULTISELECT] Which of the signs listed below may indicate that a printer ribbon needs replacement? (Select 2 answers)

*Faded or light print output* | Repetitive smudging of characters | Frequent paper jams | *Characters appearing incomplete* | Paper feeding too slowly

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following symptoms may indicate a failing impact printer printhead? (Select 3 answers)

*Vertical lines or dots are missing in printouts* | Misaligned printed output due to incorrect paper feed | *Printed characters or images appear faint or with inconsistent darkness* | *Horizontal lines or dots are missing in printouts* | Excessive noise during printer operation

[MULTISELECT] Which best practices should be followed when handling paper for an impact printer? (Select 2 answers)

Adjust the printhead tension to optimize paper feeding | *Ensure perforated edges are properly positioned for continuous feeding* | *Align paper correctly in the tractor feed mechanism* | Ensure the ribbon is well-saturated with ink before loading paper | Remove the perforated edges before printing to ensure smooth paper feeding

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In laser printing, vertical lines appearing on each output page indicate a problem related to the:

*Imaging drum* | Printer driver | Fuser unit | Printhead nozzles

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the troubleshooting steps listed below would resolve vertical lines on the output pages of an inkjet printer?

Replacing the imaging drum | Updating printer drivers | *Cleaning printheads* | Replacing the toner cartridge

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Garbled characters on printed pages typically indicate a problem with how the printer receives or interprets data. Common causes include faulty or outdated printer drivers, corrupted print jobs, or communication errors between the computer and the printer. Other potential factors include mismatched page description languages (such as PCL vs. PostScript), incorrect printer configurations, damaged interface cables, or formatting issues at the application level.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following issues is least likely to contribute to paper jams in printers?

Paper path obstructed by foreign objects | Curled or deformed paper sheets | Incorrect paper size or type | High humidity levels affecting paper | Overloaded paper tray | Dirty or worn paper pickup rollers | *Incorrect page orientation settings*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the steps listed below are not considered best practices when clearing printer paper jams? (Select 2 answers)

Open all access doors and trays to gain a clear view of the paper path | Inspect all areas of the paper path for torn fragments or debris | Check for worn or dirty paper pickup rollers | *Apply mild force (if necessary) to pull jammed paper in the opposite feed direction* | *Keep the printer powered on and try another print job to see if the jam resolves automatically* | Power cycle the printer after clearing jam to reset sensors

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a common cause of faded printouts in a laser printer?

Near-empty ink cartridges | Dried ink buildup in printhead nozzles | *Low or uneven toner levels* | Misaligned printheads

[MULTISELECT] Which of the issues listed below are common causes of faded printouts in inkjet printers? (Select 2 answers)

Incorrect toner density | Worn-out drum unit | *Low ink levels* | Insufficient fuser heat | *Clogged printhead nozzles*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following can cause paper not feeding in a printer? (Select all that apply)

*Overloaded paper tray* | *Foreign objects or paper debris in the paper path* | *Worn or dirty paper feed rollers* | Corrupted print spooler | *Paper quality or type issues*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that their printer is frequently pulling two or more sheets of paper at once, leading to jams or blank pages mixed with printed ones. What should a technician check for to resolve the problem?

Paper quality issues | Worn or faulty separation pad | Overfilled paper tray | Worn or dirty pickup rollers | Humidity affecting paper | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that several documents are stuck in the print queue and not printing. What should a technician try first?

Clear all print jobs from the queue | Verify the network connection status | Check for paper jams in the printer | *Restart the print spooler service*

[MULTISELECT] What are the most common causes of speckling on printed pages in a laser printer? (Select 3 answers)

*Leaking toner cartridge* | *Paper dust, debris, or excess toner buildup* | *Contaminated or faulty imaging drum* | Partially clogged or dirty printhead nozzles | Defective ink cartridge

[MULTISELECT] An office inkjet printer is leaving small, dark spots appearing randomly across each printout page. What are the most probable causes of this issue? (Select 3 answers)

Defective toner cartridge | *Excess paper dust, debris, or ink residue on the paper path* | *Partial blockages or dirt in printhead nozzles* | *Leaking ink cartridge* | Dirty or damaged drum unit

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In laser printers, double or echo images on the printed page are often caused by a residual latent image on the imaging drum being reused during the same print cycle. Troubleshooting steps include checking the drum for wear or residual toner buildup, verifying that the fuser is operating at the correct temperature and effectively bonding the toner to the paper, and replacing any faulty components as needed.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] In an inkjet printer, which issues are commonly associated with a grinding noise? (Select 3 answers)

*Worn, damaged or misaligned paper feed rollers* | *Small paper pieces or foreign objects stuck in the paper path* | *Printhead carriage mechanism malfunctions (e.g., misaligned or obstructed carriage)* | Worn or damaged gears and bearings affecting the drum unit | Faulty or worn fuser rollers and bearings

[MULTISELECT] Which possible issues should a technician investigate when a grinding noise is heard during laser printer operation? (Select all that apply)

Malfunctioning or obstructed printhead carriage | *Faulty or worn fuser rollers and bearings* | *Worn or damaged gears and bearings affecting the imaging drum assembly* | *Small foreign objects or paper pieces stuck in the paper path* | *Improperly aligned, worn, or faulty paper feed rollers*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] On the CompTIA A+ exam, the term ""Finishing issues"" in the context of the printing process refers to post-printing problems related to additional functionalities offered by some office printers, such as stapling documents and punching holes in printouts. The problem of staple jams can be solved by accessing the staple cartridge or staple compartment on the printer and manually removing any jammed staples. For printers that can punch holes in documents, a common maintenance task would be locating the hole-punch waste container on the printer and emptying its contents. Adjusting the placement of staples and holes on the printed document can be performed via the printer's software."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the print configuration options listed below would be the best place to verify default page orientation settings?

*Printer driver settings* | Application settings | Print dialog options | Printer utility settings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is the least likely cause of a printer failing to recognize a paper tray?

A dirty or malfunctioning paper tray sensor | *Use of lower-grade, inexpensive, or recycled paper* | Printer settings that do not match the paper type or size | Unseated or improperly inserted paper tray

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below would be of help when troubleshooting connectivity issues related to a network printer?

Verify physical connections (cables, power) | Restart devices (printer, router/modem, computer) | Check firewall settings on the computer and network | Update printer drivers to the latest version | Check the printer's IP configuration settings | Uninstall/reinstall printer software on the computer | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following actions is least likely to solve the problem of a frozen print queue on a printer?

Restart the Print Spooler service | Manually cancel all pending jobs in the printer settings | Power cycle the computer and/or printer | Update or reinstall the printer driver/software | *Change the printer's default output tray*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most common memory module form factor used in laptops?

ECC RAM | DIMM | *SODIMM* | CRIMM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of RAM features separate electrical contacts on each side of the module?

SRAM | *DIMM* | DRAM | SIMM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The placement of a notch on the RAM module contact surface ensures proper alignment of the module with the memory bank on the motherboard and prevents the installation of incompatible memory types.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)? (Select all that apply)

Non-volatile storage media type | *Faster than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)* | Widely used as the primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard) | *More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)* | Slower than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM) | *Volatile storage media type* | *Utilized for CPU cache memory chips* | Less expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristics of Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)? (Select all that apply)

*Volatile storage media type* | Utilized for CPU cache memory chips | More expensive in comparison to Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM) | Non-volatile storage media type | *Slower than Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)* | *Widely used as the primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard)* | Faster than Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM) | *Less expensive in comparison to Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The term ""Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (SDRAM)"" refers to a broad category of DRAM modules that rely on the signal sent by the system clock in order to coordinate their functioning with other internal PC components."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] SDRAM's backward compatibility feature provides a convenient way to build PCs using different types of SDRAM modules.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a valid SDRAM module combination that can be installed on a single PC motherboard?

DDR3 + DDR2 | DDR4 + DDR3 | DDR5 + DDR4 | Any of the above | *None of the above*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to the Double Data Rate 3 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR3 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

*16 GB maximum capacity per memory module* | *240 contact pins* | *A notch on the RAM module contact surface prevents the installation of incompatible memory types* | 288 contact pins | 32 GB maximum capacity per memory module | Backwards compatible with earlier DDR SDRAM versions

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 4 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR4 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

*32 GB maximum capacity per memory module* | *288 contact pins* | 64 GB maximum capacity per memory module | *A notch on the RAM module contact surface prevents the installation of incompatible memory types* | 240 contact pins | Backwards compatible with earlier DDR SDRAM versions

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to Double Data Rate 5 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR5 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

Backwards compatible with earlier DDR SDRAM versions | *64 GB maximum capacity per memory module* | *288 contact pins* | *A notch on the RAM module contact surface prevents the installation of incompatible memory types* | 240 contact pins | 32 GB maximum capacity per memory module

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Certain types of RAM use an additional bit to detect whether a data error has occurred. This extra bit stores information about the count of bits set to 1 in a given data string (typically one byte). Examining the value of this bit at different stages of processing allows for the detection of data corruption. What is the name of that extra bit?

Checksum | Digest | CRC | *Parity bit*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] ECC type RAM:

Can only detect errors, but does not have the capability to correct them | Refers to parity RAM (the two terms are interchangeable) | Offers better performance in terms of speed when compared to a non-ECC type of RAM | *Can detect and correct errors*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] ECC RAM finds extensive use in environments where data integrity is essential, such as in critical infrastructure, high-availability systems, and applications requiring precise error detection and correction. It prioritizes data integrity over cost and performance, making it more expensive and slightly slower than non-ECC RAM in most cases.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following characteristics apply to the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in desktop PCs? (Select 2 answers)

SODIMM | *Non-ECC memory* | Static RAM | MicroDIMM | *Dynamic RAM* | ECC memory

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The color-coded memory slots on the motherboard indicate that a given motherboard provides support for the multi-channel memory architecture.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Taking advantage of the performance benefits offered by the multi-channel memory architecture requires: (Select all that apply)

*Memory modules of matching types* | Installing memory modules in slots of opposite color on the motherboard | *Memory modules of the same capacity* | *Installing modules in appropriate memory slots (slots of matching color) on the motherboard* | *Memory modules of matching speeds*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The platters in a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured in:

Revolutions per second | Iterations per minute | *Revolutions per minute* | Iterations per second

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the maximum RPM value available in modern HDDs?

10000 | 5400 | *15000* | 7200

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a storage media drive form factor for laptop computers?

1.8-inch | *2.5-inch* | 3.5-inch | 5.25-inch

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to an HDD form factor for desktops?

1.8-inch | 2.5-inch | *3.5-inch* | 5.25-inch

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below can be used to describe the features of NVMe? (Select 2 answers)

*Developed specifically for SSDs* | *Uses the PCIe interface for data transfer* | Capped at a maximum data transfer rate of 6 Gbps | Designed as a general-purpose interface for various hardware devices | Optimized for multi-drive RAID configurations

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers does not apply to the SATA interface?

Common in 2.5-inch SSDs replacing traditional HDDs | Widely used in consumer-grade laptops and desktops | An older interface originally designed for mechanical hard drives | Capped at a maximum data transfer rate of 6 Gbps | *All of the above statements accurately describe the SATA interface*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] PCIe is a general-purpose, high-speed interface that serves as the backbone for NVMe SSDs and other high-performance hardware devices.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] What are the key features of SAS? (Select 3 answers)

*Designed for systems requiring high redundancy, error correction, and uptime* | *Optimized for multi-drive configurations in a daisy-chain topology* | *Commonly implemented in mission-critical environments like servers and data centers* | Widely used in 2.5-inch SSDs replacing traditional HDDs | Developed specifically for high-throughput, low-latency flash storage environments

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An M.2 key is a notch on the pin contact surface of an M.2 expansion card which prevents its insertion into an incompatible socket. The 12 available M.2 key IDs are letters from A to M which indicate the location of notched pins on the card’s contact surface and designate the type of interface a given card is compatible with. M.2 expansion cards used for solid-state storage applications have key IDs of B and M. The B-keyed M.2 SSD cards take advantage of 2 lanes of a PCIe link (lower read/write speed), the M-keyed M.2 SSDs use 4 PCIe lanes (higher read/write speed). M.2 SSDs with 2 notches on the card’s pin contact surface (B + M) increase their compatibility, as they can be installed in either of the two types of expansion slots on the motherboard.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an older, portable device SSD form factor superseded by M.2?

*mSATA* | NVMe | SATA Express | mPCIe

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to a standard form factor for SSDs? (Select all that apply)

iSCSI | *M.2* | MicroSD | PCI-X | *mSATA*

[MULTISELECT] Hardware RAID Level 0: (Select all that apply)

*Requires a minimum of 2 drives to implement* | *Is also known as disk striping* | *Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array results in the loss of all data in the array)* | Is also referred to as disk mirroring | Provides less usable capacity compared to RAID 1 | Requires at least 3 drives to implement | *Is suitable for systems where performance takes precedence over fault tolerance* | Enhances reliability by duplicating data across all drives (failure of one drive does not result in data loss)

[MULTISELECT] Hardware RAID Level 1: (Select 3 answers)

Requires at least 3 drives to implement | Is also known as disk striping | Offers better performance than RAID 0 | *Requires at least 2 drives to implement* | *Improves reliability by duplicating data on each drive (if one drive fails, data remains accessible)* | *Is also referred to as disk mirroring*

[MULTISELECT] Hardware RAID Level 5: (Select 3 answers)

Requires at least 2 drives to implement | Can withstand the failure of more than one drive | Is also known as disk striping with double parity | *Requires at least 3 drives to implement* | *Offers both increased performance and fault tolerance (a single drive failure does not result in data loss; the array can rebuild the missing data)* | Requires at least 4 drives to implement | *Is also known as disk striping with parity*

[MULTISELECT] Hardware RAID Level 6: (Select 3 answers)

Is also known as disk striping with parity | *Requires at least 4 drives to implement* | *Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (up to 2 drive failures can be tolerated without data loss)* | Requires at least 3 drives to implement | *Is also known as disk striping with double parity* | Can continue operating after more than 2 drive failures | Requires at least 5 drives to implement

[MULTISELECT] Hardware RAID Level 10 (a.k.a. RAID 1+0): (Select 3 answers)

*Requires a minimum of 4 drives to implement* | Is known as a stripe of mirrors, combining RAID 1 (striping) with RAID 0 (mirroring) | Requires a minimum of 5 drives to implement | *Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (the array can survive the failure of one drive in each mirrored pair)* | Requires a minimum of 3 drives to implement | Can continue operating after more than 2 drive failures, regardless of which drives fail | *Is known as a stripe of mirrors, combining RAID 1 (mirroring) with RAID 0 (striping)*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the RAID levels listed below does not provide fault tolerance?

RAID 6 | RAID 10 | RAID 5 | *RAID 0* | RAID 1

[MULTISELECT] In a configuration using the minimum required number of drives, which two of the following RAID levels provide the highest amount of usable storage space?

RAID 1 | *RAID 0* | RAID 6 | RAID 10 | *RAID 5*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the RAID levels listed below provides the greatest level of redundancy?

RAID 5 | *RAID 6* | RAID 10 | RAID 1 | RAID 0

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following RAID levels offers the best performance?

*RAID 0* | RAID 5 | RAID 1 | RAID 6 | RAID 10

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below accurately describe(s) the characteristics of flash drives? (Select all that apply)

*Plug-and-play across most devices supporting USB* | *Non-volatile, rewritable storage media type* | *Solid-state memory technology (containing no mechanical moving parts)* | Primarily designed to expand storage capacity of compact electronics | *Designed for general purpose file transfer and storage* | Compatible with dedicated slots or card readers

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following features differentiate memory cards from flash drives? (Select all that apply)

*Compatible with dedicated slots or card readers* | *Primarily designed to expand storage capacity of compact electronics* | Designed for general-purpose file transfer and storage | Non-volatile, rewritable storage media type | Solid-state memory technology (containing no mechanical moving parts) | Plug-and-play across most devices supporting USB

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Due to space limitations, the shift to digital content, and the rise of faster storage alternatives, modern laptops no longer include a built-in version of this storage medium.

M.2 SATA drives | *Optical drives* | PCIe NVMe drives | eSATA drives

[MATCHING] Using the dropdown menu on the right, pair each RA: Solid green

Drive is powered and operating normally

[MATCHING] Using the dropdown menu on the right, pair each RA: Blinking green

Drive is actively reading, writing, or rebuilding data

[MATCHING] Using the dropdown menu on the right, pair each RA: Solid amber/orange

Drive requires attention (typically indicates a warning, degraded state, or pending failure)

[MATCHING] Using the dropdown menu on the right, pair each RA: Solid red

Drive has failed or encountered a critical error

[MATCHING] Using the dropdown menu on the right, pair each RA: No LED activity

Drive is unpowered, missing, or not properly connected

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Grinding noises in a storage drive usually indicate mechanical wear or damage, while clicking sounds often signal read/write head failures or electronic issues. In both cases, the recommended course of action should be data backup and drive replacement.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Grinding noises and clicking sounds are problem symptoms exclusive to:

RAM drives | SSD drives | *HDD drives* | USB drives

[MULTISELECT] Which troubleshooting actions would be advisable when the system reports that it cannot find a bootable drive? (Select all that apply)

*Confirm the drive is visible within the system setup interface* | *Examine the physical connections and cables to the drive* | *Disconnect any removable external drives (e.g., USB thumb drives)* | *Reconfigure the system to use the correct drive as the first boot option* | Disable unused USB ports in the BIOS/UEFI settings

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During startup, a computer displays a ""No bootable devices found"" message. Troubleshooting reveals a misconfigured boot sequence. Where can a technician adjust the boot device order?"

Disk Management utility | *BIOS/UEFI settings* | OS boot loader | Windows Command Prompt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which proactive measure helps minimize data loss due to drive corruption?

Daily system restore points | Automated file integrity checks | Periodic disk defragmentation | *Scheduled full disk backups*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician discovers that critical files in a RAID configuration are becoming corrupted and some data is missing. Which troubleshooting action should be performed first to determine if the drives are failing?

Check the RAID controller firmware for updates and compatibility | Review operating system logs for disk-related errors | *Evaluate the storage devices’ self-monitoring diagnostic data for anomalies* | Back up all data before initiating any troubleshooting steps

[MULTISELECT] Which of the steps listed below are not considered best practice when addressing a RAID array that has failed? (Select 2 answers)

Access the RAID controller utility to review logs of events, errors, and drive status | Check power and data cables to ensure no drive appears failed due to a loose or disconnected cable | Verify the integrity of existing backups before attempting any repairs or rebuilds | Replace the faulty drive with a component of the same or greater capacity and compatible specifications | *Force the RAID configuration to auto-rebuild by cycling power repeatedly* | *Delete the current RAID configuration and rebuild the array from scratch*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Restoring a RAID array after physical failure of one of the drives may involve a relatively straightforward step, namely, replacing the failed drive. This method applies to most RAID configurations except for:

*RAID 0* | RAID 1 | RAID 5 | RAID 6 | RAID 10

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary purpose of S.M.A.R.T. in a storage media drive?

Automatic correction of detected drive errors | Real-time monitoring and regulation of power consumption | *Prediction and reporting of impending drive failures* | Optimization of drive read/write speeds

[MULTISELECT] What should be the recommended course of action after receiving a S.M.A.R.T. failure prediction error message? (Select 2 answers)

Rebuilding the RAID array | *Backing up data* | Rolling back to the last system restore point | Clearing system logs to verify if the error persists | *Replacing the drive*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician notices longer than normal file transfer times on a system using a mechanical hard drive. What is the first diagnostic action they should consider?

Run disk cleanup utility | Check network adapter settings | *Perform disk defragmentation* | Adjust paging file size

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following metrics plays a role in diagnosing the declining performance of a storage drive?

RPM | I/O | LBA | *IOPS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A computer's internal storage drive is not detected in the BIOS/UEFI or within the operating system's Disk Management utility. What is the most likely first troubleshooting step to resolve this issue?

Initialize the drive | Examine system logs for errors | *Inspect the drive's power and data cable connections* | Format the drive

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] If a storage drive does not appear in the OS, one possible cause is that the drive has been disabled at the firmware level.

*True* | False

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What action should be taken if a drive is missing in the OS but appears in Disk Management as ""Unallocated""?"

Modify OS settings to show hidden items | *Initialize and format the drive* | Change device access permissions for the current user | Enable the drive in BIOS/UEFI settings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is the most likely cause of a missing RAID array?

Failed drive in the array | Incorrect RAID controller settings | Disconnected or loose cable | *All of the above*

[MULTISELECT] What should be the initial troubleshooting steps when a RAID array is missing from the system? (Select 2 answers)

Examine whether other non-RAID drives are functioning normally | *Check for loose/disconnected cables or a poorly seated RAID controller card* | Verify that the system has adequate power supply wattage | *Ensure the RAID controller is recognized and enabled in the BIOS/UEFI settings* | Confirm if the RAID array is visible in the OS Disk Management tool

[MULTISELECT] If a RAID array is producing audible alarms, what does this typically indicate? (Select 2 answers)

System overheating | Pending reboot request | *Drive failure* | Insufficient power supply | *Array degradation*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which port enables the FTP data connection for transferring file data?

UDP port 20 | *TCP port 20* | UDP port 21 | TCP port 21

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The FTP control connection to administer a session is established through:

TCP port 20 | UDP port 20 | *TCP port 21* | UDP port 21

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which port does the SSH protocol use?

TCP port 21 | UDP port 22 | TCP port 20 | *TCP port 22*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which TCP port is used by the Telnet protocol?

Port 20 | Port 21 | Port 22 | *Port 23*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] TCP port 25 is used by:

SNMP | Telnet | FTP | *SMTP*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which TCP/UDP port is assigned to DNS?

*Port 53* | Port 67 | Port 110 | Port 389

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A DHCP server operates on UDP port:

Port 66 | *Port 67* | Port 68 | Port 69

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which UDP port is used by a DHCP client to receive responses from a DHCP server?

Port 66 | Port 67 | *Port 68* | Port 69

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which protocol operates on TCP port 80?

*HTTP* | IMAP | HTTPS | LDAP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the default port for POP3 communication?

*TCP port 110* | UDP port 123 | TCP port 143 | UDP port 161

[MULTISELECT] Which of the port numbers listed below are assigned to NetBIOS services? (Select 3 answers)

Port 135 | Port 136 | *Port 137* | *Port 138* | *Port 139*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which service operates on TCP port 389?

RDP | *LDAP* | SMB | LDAPS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the default TCP port used for HTTPS communication?

Port 80 | *Port 443* | Port 53 | Port 143

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following services runs on TCP port 445?

HTTPS | *SMB* | IMAP | LDAPS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which TCP port is used for RDP?

Port 514 | *Port 3389* | Port 22 | Port 5900

[MULTISELECT] What are the primary benefits of using a sandboxed environment in virtualization? (Select 2 answers)

Enabling cross-platform application development | Sharing resources between multiple virtual machines | *Isolating untrusted software or code to prevent damage to the host system* | *Analyzing malware in a controlled environment* | Running multiple operating systems on a single physical machine

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A software developer needs to test a new application feature that might introduce instability. Using virtualization, what is the most appropriate way to isolate this task?

*Create a virtual machine as a sandbox specifically for testing this feature* | Use a dual-boot system to test the feature on a separate partition | Host the application on a networked virtual machine shared by multiple users | Create a snapshot of the production environment and test the feature within it

[MULTISELECT] Which features make virtual machines well-suited for testing new software? (Select 2 answers)

*Ability to revert to a previous state using snapshots* | *Support for software compatibility checks across multiple OS setups* | Real-time monitoring of system resource usage | Scaling of computing resources for better performance | Automatic reduction of software licensing costs

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary purpose of application virtualization?

To emulate computer hardware for running different operating systems | To remove all hardware limitations from software execution | To permanently reduce software licensing costs | *To run software without installing it directly on the host operating system*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company needs to run accounting software designed for Windows XP on a Windows 11 host. What would be the most practical modern solution?

Enable compatibility mode for Windows XP within Windows 11 | Replace the legacy app with a modern accounting software package | Run Windows XP in a dual-boot configuration alongside Windows 11 | *Install Windows XP in a virtual machine on the current system*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary advantage of using cross-platform virtualization?

Running multiple operating systems simultaneously | *Enabling software to run on an unsupported operating system* | Allowing virtual machines to run without a host OS | Providing direct hardware access for legacy applications

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to common examples of cross-platform virtualization in practice? (Select 3 answers)

*Running macOS in a virtual machine on a Windows host* | *Using virtualized Android environment on a Windows or macOS host* | Accessing cloud-hosted Windows desktops from a macOS system | Running a web application in a browser on different operating systems | Accessing cloud-hosted macOS desktops from a Windows system | *Running Windows in a virtual machine on a macOS host*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What security practice helps to limit the potential impact of a compromised virtual machine on other VMs and the host?

Using multi-factor authentication for hypervisor access | *Ensuring proper isolation between virtual machines* | Conducting regular vulnerability scans of the virtual machines | Implementing intrusion detection systems on the network

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is a common method for managing access and permissions within a virtualized infrastructure?

Deploying a host-based firewall on each virtual machine | Installing antivirus software on all virtual machines | *Utilizing the access control features of the hypervisor* | Encrypting data in transit between virtual machines

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Enforcing strong password protection on the hypervisor management interface is less critical than applying the same level of password security to individual virtual machines.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Keeping the hypervisor software up to date primarily helps to protect against:

Accidental data loss within virtual machines | Performance bottlenecks within virtual machines | *Known security vulnerabilities* | Unauthorized access to guest operating systems

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to a virtual machine in a bridged networking configuration? (Select 3 answers)

The VM receives its TCP/IP configuration settings from a virtual DHCP server managed by the hypervisor | *The VM's network adapter is connected directly to the physical network through the host’s network interface* | The VM's private address is not advertised on the LAN preventing direct inbound connections | *The VM can communicate directly with all other devices on the physical network and the Internet, just like any other physical machine* | *The VM obtains its TCP/IP configuration settings directly from the DHCP server on the physical network* | The VM uses the IP address of the host machine for outbound communication via NAT

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to a virtual machine in a shared networking configuration? (Select 3 answers)

The VM's network adapter is connected directly to the physical network through the host’s network interface | *The VM receives its TCP/IP configuration settings from a virtual DHCP server managed by the hypervisor* | The VM can communicate directly with all other devices on the physical network and the Internet, just like any other physical machine | *The VM uses the IP address of the host machine for outbound communication via NAT* | *The VM's private address is not advertised on the LAN preventing direct inbound connections* | The VM obtains its TCP/IP configuration settings directly from the DHCP server on the physical network

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following are critical factors for storage performance in a virtualized environment? (Select 2 answers)

*High IOPS* | Low CPU utilization | File system type | *Low latency* | Hypervisor type

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the key benefit of using SSDs in virtualized environments?

Compact form factor | *Fast read/write speeds* | High capacity | Low cost per terabyte of storage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a virtualization platform used to deliver virtual desktops to multiple users?

VDE | VNC | *VDI* | RDP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is a container in virtualization?

A dedicated partition used to store virtual machines | A virtualized environment that runs operating systems and applications | A security feature that prevents unauthorized users from accessing virtual machines | *A portable package containing an app and everything it needs to run*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers best describes a Type 1 hypervisor?

A hypervisor that requires an OS to run virtual machines | A hypervisor that runs as an application on a host OS | A hypervisor type commonly used in personal desktop environments | *A hypervisor that runs directly on the hardware*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What potential performance limitation might a Type 2 hypervisor experience compared to a Type 1 hypervisor?

Inability to run multiple virtual machines | Restriction on the amount of RAM allocated to VMs | *Overhead from the host operating system consuming resources* | Lack of support for certain types of hardware

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe the characteristics of the 2.4 GHz frequency range, when compared to higher-frequency bands like 5 GHz and 6 GHz? (Select 3 answers)

*The longest range (better penetration through obstacles)* | A wider number of available channels with less overlap | *Higher susceptibility to interference due to device congestion* | *The lowest number of non-overlapping channels* | Shorter range (weaker penetration through obstacles) | Less interference due to fewer devices using the band

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Compared to the 2.4 GHz and 6 GHz frequency bands, the 5 GHz frequency range offers:

The longest range among available Wi-Fi bands | The best penetration through walls and obstacles | The highest number of non-overlapping channels | The fastest data speeds of all frequency bands | *None of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers does not refer to the 6 GHz frequency band?

*The longest range among available Wi-Fi bands* | The highest number of non-overlapping channels | The lowest susceptibility to interference | The fastest data speeds of all frequency bands

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Wireless networking channels are governed by country-specific regulations. These rules define which frequency bands can be used for wireless communication, whether they require licensing (such as cellular or satellite communication) or are unlicensed (such as Wi-Fi). They also specify the number and width of available channels within those bands and set limits on transmission power.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In wireless networks, channel overlapping occurs when multiple channels share the same frequency band, causing interference and performance degradation for devices operating on channels that are too close to each other. A common example of channel overlapping is found in the 2.4 GHz band (2.400–2.4835 GHz) used in 802.11 networks, where the frequency range is divided into 11 channels (the number of channels may vary by region), each occupying a 22 MHz portion of the spectrum. Setting up a wireless network to operate on non-overlapping channels (typically 1, 6, and 11) allows multiple networks to coexist in the same area without causing interference.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the statements listed below best describes the effect of increasing channel width in a wireless network?

Extends the range of the wireless signal | *Increases data throughput but may cause more interference* | Minimizes latency for all connected devices | Reduces interference from neighboring channels

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to Bluetooth? (Select all that apply)

*Operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band* | Requires line-of-sight for optimal performance | *Short-range wireless communication* | *Optimized for creating PANs* | *Used for peripheral, wearable and IoT devices*

[MULTISELECT] What are the main characteristics of 802.11 networks? (Select 3 answers)

Optimized for long-distance wireless communication | *Built to support infrastructure and ad-hoc network modes* | *Engineered for high-speed wireless data transmission* | *Standardized by IEEE for WLANs as an alternative to wired LANs* | Designed to operate in licensed frequency bands | Structured around base stations for network coverage

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to NFC? (Select all that apply)

Dependent on clear line-of-sight for data transfer | Standardized for operation in the 2.4 GHz frequency band | *Built for very short-range wireless communication (typically up to 4 cm)* | *Used for secure transactions, such as contactless payments* | Designed to operate in licensed frequency bands | *Commonly found in smart cards, passports, and access control systems*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following statements does not describe RFID?

Utilized in automatic identification and object tracking | Used for communication between tags and readers via radio waves | Implemented in supply chain, logistics, and access control systems | Found in some contactless payment systems and smart cards | *Designed for short-range personal area networking*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which workstation operating system is most widely adopted in business environments due to its strong compatibility with enterprise applications, management tools, and network infrastructure?

*Windows* | Linux | macOS | Chrome OS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A software development company is setting up new workstations for programmers who frequently use command-line tools, need extensive system configuration capabilities, and prefer a fully open-source platform for building and testing applications. Which OS is best suited for their needs?

Chrome OS | macOS | *Linux* | Windows

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which workstation OS runs natively only on Apple hardware?

CentOS | *macOS* | ReactOS | Chrome OS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an operating system designed for lightweight, low-cost laptops optimized for web-based applications?

*Chrome OS* | Linux | macOS | Windows

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which mobile operating system restricts app installation strictly to the App Store unless the device is modified?

*iOS* | Android | Chrome OS | macOS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a mobile OS widely adopted by device manufacturers for its open-source base and flexible customization options?

Symbian | webOS | Chrome OS | *Android*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which device type is iPadOS specifically developed for?

*Tablet* | Smartphone | Laptop | Smartwatch

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which mobile OS is exclusive to Apple's iPhones?

iPadOS | macOS | *iOS* | watchOS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A digital artist needs a mobile operating system that supports advanced stylus features. Which OS is the best fit?

*iPadOS* | iOS | macOS | Chrome OS

[MULTISELECT] What are the key characteristics of Android OS? (Select 3 answers)

Closed ecosystem | Limited customization options | *Apps installable from third-party sources (if enabled)* | *Open-source platform* | Apps limited only to official App Store | *High level of customization*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a Microsoft-developed file system that provides advanced features such as file and folder permissions, encryption, compression, and support for very large files and partitions?

FAT32 | HFS+ | exFAT | *NTFS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Microsoft file system was specifically designed for maximum resilience, data integrity, and large-scale storage deployments in enterprise environments?

XFS | Btrfs | ZFS | *ReFS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following file systems is known for its 4 GB maximum file size and 2 TB maximum volume size limitations?

NTFS | *FAT32* | NFS | exFAT

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which file system is the default choice for many modern Linux distributions?

APFS | *ext4* | HFS+ | exFAT

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux file system is widely used in enterprise environments due to its support for very large files, scalability, and high performance?

EFS | *XFS* | UFS | NFS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a Microsoft-developed proprietary file system optimized for flash drives and external storage devices?

ReFS | FAT32 | NTFS | *exFAT*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to the default macOS file system optimized for solid-state drives and encryption?

ReFS | HFS+ | EFS | *APFS*

[MULTISELECT] Which file systems offer the broadest cross-platform compatibility across Windows, macOS, and Linux systems? (Select 2 answers)

*FAT32* | ext4 | NTFS | *exFAT* | APFS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which term describes the final phase in a product’s life cycle when it is no longer developed, sold, or officially supported by its vendor? (Select the best answer)

EOS | EOM | *EOL* | EOA

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which factor is a common limitation preventing a very old desktop computer from upgrading to the newest version of an operating system?

Insufficient privileges on the user account | Default boot device set to external media | *Hardware not meeting minimum system requirements* | Missing required operating system license key

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Vendors might limit updates or discontinue support for an operating system to:

Encourage users to upgrade to newer versions | Reduce development and support costs for older systems | Focus development and support resources on newer OS versions | Phase out legacy technology | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which factor is the primary cause of compatibility issues when sharing data between different operating systems?

Variations in hardware requirements | Inconsistent file naming conventions | Lack of support for proprietary software | *Differences in file system formats*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Common methods used to mitigate compatibility issues between operating systems include using virtual machines, running cross-platform applications, accessing software through web-based apps, setting up remote desktop solutions, and creating dual-boot configurations to switch between OS environments as needed.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below is not required when preparing a USB drive to serve as bootable installation media for an operating system?

Formatting the USB drive with a supported file system | Creating a bootable partition on the USB drive | Writing the operating system installation image to the USB | *Installing the operating system onto the USB drive*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a solution widely used in enterprise environments for deploying operating systems at scale, particularly when the use of physical media is not feasible?

NAS | RDP | *PXE* | SAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an IP address that remains unchanged for a device until reconfigured?

*Static IP address* | Dynamic IP address | Private IP address | Public IP address

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What type of server handles the assignment of dynamic IP addresses?

Proxy server | DNS server | NAT device | *DHCP server*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to information required for manual configuration of TCP/IP settings on a network adapter in Windows? (Select all that apply)

*IP address* | *Subnet mask* | *Default gateway* | SSID (a.k.a. network name) | MAC address | *DNS server address*

[MULTISELECT] What is the correct sequence of steps for accessing the Network Connections applet that displays all available network adapters in Windows? (Select all that apply)

"Control Panel (category view) > Hardware and Sound > Devices and Printers > Network adapters | Control Panel (icon view) > Device Manager > Network adapters | *Windows Run dialog box > type ""ncpa.cpl"" (without double quotes), and press Enter* | *Control Panel (category view) > Network and Internet > Network and Sharing Center > Change adapter settings* | *Control Panel (icon view) > Network and Sharing Center > Change adapter settings*"

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that occasionally fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. To maintain network connectivity in these cases, they plan to configure a fallback static IP address. After opening the Network Connections applet and locating the correct adapter, which navigation path should they follow to reach the appropriate configuration interface?

*Right-click on the adapter > Properties > Internet Protocol version 4 (TCP/IPv4) > Properties* | Select the adapter > press Alt to display Menu bar > File > Properties | Right-click on the adapter > Properties > Configure... > Advanced tab | Select the adapter > Change settings for this connection (in the Command Bar) > Configure...

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A system that uses a public network (such as the internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations is called:

WWAN | *VPN* | PAN | VLAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-frequency radio waves to communicate with each other is referred to as:

MAN | *WLAN* | LAN | VLAN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the most common network communication technology used in wired LANs, MANs, and WANs?

Dial-up | DSL | *Ethernet* | ISDN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which WAN technology takes advantage of cell towers that provide wireless signal coverage for mobile devices?

MPLS | *WWAN* | ATM | SONET

[MULTISELECT] Which sequence of steps in Windows provides access to an interface for creating network connections? (Select 2 answers)

Windows Control Panel (category view) > Internet Options > Set up a new connection or network | *Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Network and Sharing Center > Set up a new connection or network* | *Windows Control Panel (category view) > View network status and tasks > Set up a new connection or network* | Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Internet Options > General tab > Set up a new connection or network | Windows Control Panel (category view) > Network and Internet > Set up a new connection or network

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Windows, proxy settings can be accessed via:

"Windows Control Panel (category view) > Network and Internet > Internet Options > Connections tab > LAN settings > Proxy server | Windows Start > Settings > Network & Internet (Windows 10) > Proxy | Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Internet Options > Connections tab > LAN settings > Proxy server | Windows Run dialog box > type ""inetcpl.cpl"" (without double quotes), and press Enter > Connections tab > LAN settings > Proxy server | Windows Start > Settings > Network & internet (Windows 11) > Proxy | *All of the above*"

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements describe the default behavior of a private network profile in Windows? (Select 3 answers)

The PC remains hidden from other devices on the network | *Used for trusted networks, such as home or work networks* | The PC can't be used for file and printer sharing | *Enables the PC to become discoverable to other devices on the network* | Used for untrusted networks, such as a Wi-Fi network at a coffee shop | *Enables the PC to be used for file and printer sharing*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe the default characteristics of a public network profile in Windows? (Select 3 answers)

Used for trusted networks, such as home or work networks | Enables the PC to become discoverable to other devices on the network | *The PC can't be used for file and printer sharing* | Enables the PC to be used for file and printer sharing | *Used for untrusted networks, such as a Wi-Fi network at a coffee shop* | *The PC remains hidden from other devices on the network*

[MULTISELECT] Which navigation paths in Windows provide access to a configuration interface used for modifying public/private network profile settings? (Select 2 answers)

Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Internet Options > Connections tab > LAN settings > Change advanced sharing settings | *Windows Control Panel (category view) > View network status and tasks > Change advanced sharing settings* | Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Windows Defender Firewall > expand Private/Public networks menu > modify network profile settings | Windows Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > Check firewall status > expand Private/Public networks menu > modify network profile settings | *Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Network and Sharing Center > Change advanced sharing settings*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] File Explorer network navigation is a Windows feature that allows users to access and manage shared files, folders, and devices on a local network. Instead of using a web browser or specialized programs, users can browse network resources just like they would browse files stored locally on their own computer. To access a specific shared location, users can type its full network path into the address bar of File Explorer. This path begins with two backslashes, followed by the name of the computer or server, and then the name of the shared folder or resource, such as in \\ComputerName\SharedFolder.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that Windows updates are not automatically downloading on their laptop. Upon checking, the technician discovers the laptop is connected to a mobile hotspot with a data limit. What is the most likely cause of the update issue?

Laptop's firewall is blocking all update traffic | Network profile is set to public, which blocks Windows Update traffic | *Connection is set to metered, which pauses large downloads* | User has manually disabled all Windows updates

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Windows utility is used to enable or disable a metered connection?

Computer Management | *Settings app* | Network and Sharing Center | Internet Options

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What does a macOS file with the .dmg extension primarily represent?

Compressed archive format similar to a .zip file | *Virtual disk image that can be mounted as a volume* | Application package file that installs directly from the App Store | Executable installer file similar to a Windows .exe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following refers to an installer file format processed by the macOS Installer utility?

.app | *.pkg* | .exe | .dmg

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An .app file in macOS is a specialized folder (an application bundle) represented as a single file in Finder. This self-contained bundle includes all the essential components required to run the application, such as the executable program, resource files like icons and images, and configuration settings. It functions as an executable, so double-clicking it launches the application inside the bundle. Another important characteristic of .app files in macOS is that they can easily be moved or copied without affecting the application's functionality.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a macOS built-in feature and tool that serves as the official digital distribution platform for applications?

Spotlight | AirDrop | Launchpad | *App Store*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In macOS, most applications can be uninstalled by simply dragging the .app file to the Trash, a method often referred to as drag & drop deletion. Applications installed via the App Store can also be removed from Launchpad. In Launchpad, applications installed via the App Store can be deleted by clicking and holding an app icon until it wiggles, then selecting the “X” that appears on the icon. Some applications installed through .pkg files may require a dedicated uninstaller provided by the software developer.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which macOS folder is the default location for both Apple-supplied and user-installed software?

/Users | */Applications* | /Library | /System

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user wants to access their personal files in macOS. Where should they navigate to?

*/Users/[username]* | /Applications/[username] | /Library/[username] | /System/[username]

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to macOS folder containing system-wide resources and settings used by applications and the operating system?

/Users | /Applications | */Library* | /System

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which folder in macOS contains the core OS files necessary for the system to run?

/Library | /Config | /Applications | */System*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a macOS folder designed to store application data and settings specific to an individual user account?

/System/Library/[username] | /Library/[username]/Preferences | /System/[username]/Library | */Users/[username]/Library*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following provides SSO access exclusive to Apple’s own ecosystem of products and services?

Apple Passkey | Gatekeeper | *Apple ID* | Sign in with Apple

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is a common method for enforcing corporate restrictions on macOS devices?

RSR | *MDM* | UAC | MFA

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A reliable data backup strategy includes keeping multiple copies of data on different media types, storing at least one copy offsite, encrypting backup data, retaining multiple historical versions, automating backups, and periodically testing restoration.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] While macOS includes integrated malware protection features such as XProtect and Gatekeeper, organizations in business and regulated sectors often deploy third-party antivirus solutions to strengthen security against both known and emerging threats.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is configuring a batch of new macOS devices for a small business. The client wants to ensure all systems stay up to date with the latest patches automatically. Which System Settings location allows the technician to enable this functionality?

Control Center > Updates | Admin Tools > Updates | Maintenance > Update Options | *General > Software Update*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an Apple-exclusive mechanism for deploying time-sensitive security patches independently of major OS updates?

YUM | *RSR* | APT | RPM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In macOS, the System Settings menu (formerly System Preferences), accessible from the Apple menu, provides a centralized location to configure hardware and peripheral devices such as displays, printers, or scanners. It can also be used to manage network connections, privacy and accessibility options, as well as system backups.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to the built-in backup utility in macOS?

*Time Machine* | ChronoSync | iDrive | Retrospect

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which macOS feature allows users to group and organize full-screen applications and windows into multiple virtual desktop environments?

Dashboard | Control Center | Desktop Window Manager | *Spaces*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A macOS feature providing single-screen thumbnail preview of all open windows and applications is known as:

Quick Look | Spotlight | *Mission Control* | Stage Manager

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which built-in macOS utility provides secure storage and management of passwords, encryption keys, certificates, and other sensitive credentials?

*Keychain* | Credential Manager | Apple ID | FileVault

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a macOS system search utility?

Explorer | File explorer | *Spotlight* | Finder

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Apple’s cloud service for storing and syncing data across devices is called:

iDrive | AirDrop | OneDrive | *iCloud*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Apple's iMessage is a proprietary service designed for secure exchange of email messages between Apple devices.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which macOS app can be used for real-time audio and video calling between Apple devices?

iChat | *FaceTime* | Signal | Zoom

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user works on a MacBook at the office and wants to continue editing the same files later on their iPad at home. They need a solution that stores files in the cloud so the latest version is automatically available on all their Apple devices. Which macOS feature should they use?

*iCloud Drive* | AirDrop | iDrive | Continuity

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In modern macOS versions, gestures can be customized in System Settings under Trackpad preferences.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to the default file management application for macOS?

Dock | Explorer | Spotlight | *Finder*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the name of the macOS feature that functions similarly to the Windows taskbar, providing quick access to frequently used and running applications, as well as minimized windows?

Menu Bar | Quick Look | *Dock* | Preview

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A set of features allowing users to seamlessly transition tasks and data between different Apple devices is referred to as:

iMessages | *Continuity* | Universal Clipboard | iCloud Drive

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which macOS tool allows users to create .dmg files?

Disk Management | iDrive | GParted | *Disk Utility*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which macOS feature encrypts the contents of the startup disk to protect user data from unauthorized access?

TrueCrypt | *FileVault* | Keychain | Gatekeeper

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which macOS tool provides access to different command-line shells?

PowerShell | Command Prompt | *Terminal* | Console

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which macOS feature allows users to terminate an unresponsive application or process?

Safe Quit | Force Stop | End Task | *Force Quit*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux command is used to display files and directories in the current working directory?

pwd | *ls* | grep | ps

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command in Linux displays the absolute path of the current working directory?

mv | *pwd* | rm | dir

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux command is used for moving or renaming files and directories?

rm | cp | ln | *mv*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the commands listed below is used for copying files and directories in Linux?

*cp* | copy | xcopy | robocopy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A command-line command in Linux used for deleting files and directories is known as:

erase | *rm* | del | edit

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the function of the Linux chmod command?

Alters group membership for a user | Changes the owner and/or group of a file or directory | *Sets or modifies permissions for files and directories* | Updates the default shell for a user

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What does the chown command do in Linux?

Sets or modifies permissions for files and directories | Displays user identity and group information | *Changes the owner and/or group of a file or directory* | Modifies default file creation permissions

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux command enables searching within file contents for specific text patterns?

search | find | *grep* | locate

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux command-line utility used to search for files and directories is called:

*find* | path | search | grep

[MULTISELECT] The fsck command in Linux can be used for: (Select 2 answers)

Formatting new partitions | *Verifying filesystem integrity* | Securely deleting files | *Repairing filesystem errors* | Checking available disk space

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The mount command in Linux is used to make a filesystem accessible to the operating system by attaching it to a specific directory (the mount point) within the Linux filesystem tree.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux command allows a user to assume the identity of another system user and operate within that user's shell environment?

login | id | usermod | *su*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command in Linux allows a permitted user to execute a single command with elevated privileges, typically as the root user?

chmod | su | usermod | *sudo*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following command-line utilities is used for installing, upgrading, and removing software packages on Debian and Debian-based Linux distributions?

rpm | *apt* | dnf | yum

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the software package manager used in modern Red Hat and Red Hat-based Linux distributions?

pkg | *dnf* | dpkg | apt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which modern Linux command-line utility is used for displaying and managing network configuration settings?

ipconfig | route | *ip* | netstat

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux network diagnostic utility used to test the reachability of a host on an IP network is known as:

*ping* | tracert | dig | netstat

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following Linux command-line tools is specifically designed for transferring data using a wide range of supported internet protocols such as HTTP, FTP, or SMTP?

*curl* | wget | scp | rsync

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a Linux network administration command-line utility used for querying DNS servers, retrieving various types of DNS records, and troubleshooting DNS resolution issues?

mtr | whois | nc | *dig*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Linux, tracert is a command-line utility that maps the path packets take from the local system to a remote host, displaying each hop along the route and round-trip times. It is used to diagnose network routing issues, identify bottlenecks, and verify connectivity between hosts.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following commands in Linux provides access to documentation and help pages for other commands?

[command] usage | *man [command]* | [command] info | docs [command]

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the common functions of the Linux cat command? (Select 2 answers)

Listing files and directories in a folder | Searching for specific text patterns within a file | *Displaying contents of one or more files to the terminal* | *Concatenating contents of multiple files into a single output stream or file* | Renaming or moving a file to a new location

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command-line utility in Linux provides a real-time, interactive view of system metrics such as CPU usage, memory consumption, and active processes?

*top* | vmstat | ps | tasklist

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux command provides a static snapshot of currently running processes at the moment the command is executed?

dstat | tasklist | *ps* | top

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following Linux commands is used to estimate and display the amount of disk space used by individual files and directories?

*du* | fdisk | parted | df

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The df command in Linux can be used to determine the disk space used by a specific directory and its contents.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a command-line text editor for Linux?

gedit | cat | *nano* | touch

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a plain-text system file that contains essential information about user accounts in Linux?

/etc/shadow | /etc/users | */etc/passwd* | /etc/sudoers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux system file is used to store encrypted password hashes and additional password-related settings?

/etc/sysconfig | /etc/passwd | /etc/login.defs | */etc/shadow*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Linux, the system file used for local hostname to IP address resolution is located in:

*/etc/hosts* | /etc/sysconfig/network | /etc/network/interfaces | /etc/resolv.conf

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The fstab system file in Linux, located at /etc/fstab, is a filesystem table that lists storage devices and partitions, along with their mount points and options, allowing the system to mount them automatically at boot.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which system file in Linux specifies the IP addresses of the DNS servers that the system will use to resolve domain names to IP addresses?

/etc/hostname | /etc/network/interfaces | */etc/resolv.conf* | /etc/sysconfig/network

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the standard Linux system and service manager that handles the boot process and manages system resources?

bootmgr | *systemd* | init | systemctl

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which core component of Linux manages the system's hardware resources and acts as an interface between applications and hardware?

*Kernel* | Device driver | Shell | Daemon

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to the Linux component responsible for loading the OS kernel into memory during the system startup process?

Kernel loader | Systemd | BIOS/UEFI firmware | *Bootloader*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of user account in Linux that has unrestricted access to all system files, commands, and administrative functions is called:

Admin | System | *Root* | Sudoer

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command in Linux would display a detailed, long listing of all files in a directory, including hidden files that start with a dot (.)?

*ls -la* | ls -ah | ls -fa | ls -lh

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The ls -l command in Linux shows an entry starting with d in the permissions field (e.g., drwxr-xr-x). What does the d mean in this context?

The entry item is a regular file | The entry item is a symbolic link | *The entry item is a directory* | The entry item is a block device

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A system administrator needs to rename the file report.txt to final_report.txt in the current Linux directory. Which command should they use?

cp report.txt final_report.txt | echo report.txt > final_report.txt | *mv report.txt final_report.txt* | cat report.txt > final_report.txt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user wants to move fileA.txt and fileB.txt into /home/user/archive/. Which command in Linux correctly moves both files into the destination directory?

mv fileA.txt fileB.txt > /home/user/archive/ | mv fileA.txt && fileB.txt /home/user/archive/ | *mv fileA.txt fileB.txt /home/user/archive/* | mv [fileA.txt fileB.txt] /home/user/archive/

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux technician needs to create a copy of config.txt within the current working directory and name the new file config.bak. Which of the answers listed below refers to the correct Linux command to accomplish this task?

*cp config.txt config.bak* | echo config.txt > config.bak | cp config.txt ~/config.bak | mv config.txt config.bak

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user runs the command cp -r /var/log /home/user/log_backup in Linux. What is the purpose of the -r option in this command?

To remove the source directory after copying | To prompt for confirmation before overwriting existing files | *To recursively copy files and directories* | The command contains syntax error and will fail to execute

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux user attempts to delete a large directory named old_reports with rm old_reports to free up system space, but the command results in an error. Which of the following answers lists the correct command to remove a directory and all of its contents in Linux?

rm -f old_reports | rm -d old_reports | rmdir old_reports | *rm -r old_reports*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The chmod command in Linux supports numeric (octal) notation consisting of 3 digits, where each digit is a combination of read (r), write (w), and execute (x) permissions represented in numerical form by 4, 2, and 1, respectively. Each of the resulting values in this notation applies to a different user category: owner, group, others (in that order). For example, chmod 755 script.sh sets permissions for the script.sh file and translates into -rwxr-xr-x. This gives the owner full rights (4 + 2 + 1) and read + execute access (4 + 1) to the group and others. The leading - in -rwxr-xr-x indicates the resource type, which in this case designates a regular file.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After running the command chmod 750 on a directory in Linux, a technician confirms the permissions with the ls -l command. Which of the strings listed below correctly represents the new permissions?

drwxrw---- | *drwxr-x---* | drwxr----- | drwx-wx---

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux system admin is modifying permissions for a configuration file named apache.conf. To prevent unauthorized changes, they want to allow only the file's owner to read and write to it, while allowing the web server's group and all other users to only read it. Which of the following permission sets should they use?

611 | *644* | 622 | 666

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux system admin needs to check if a file can be executed by its group. The ls -l command shows the file's permissions as -rw-r--r-x. Which of the following statements is true about this permission set?

The owner is missing write permissions | The group has write permissions | The owner has execute permissions | *The group is missing the execute permission*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The chmod command in Linux supports symbolic notation, where user categories are represented by u (owner), g (group), o (others), and a (all users, which includes owner, group, and others). Permissions are represented by r (read), w (write), and x (execute). Operators such as + (add), - (remove), and = (set exactly) are used to modify these permissions. With + or -, permissions are adjusted for the specified user category without altering others already set, while = replaces the category’s entire set of permissions with exactly those listed in the command, removing anything not named in the command.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] If the current permissions for the config.cfg file in Linux are set to -rw-r--r--, what would be the resulting set of permissions after executing chmod a=r config.cfg on that file?

644 | 400 | 666 | *444*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux user needs to allow the group to execute the maintenance script maint.sh without changing any existing read or write permissions. The current permissions for the file are -rw-r-----. Which command should they use?

chmod 640 maint.sh | *chmod g+x maint.sh* | chmod 660 maint.sh | chmod g=x maint.sh

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command in Linux can be used to remove the execute permission from the script.sh file for all users?

chmod a-x script.sh | chmod u-x,g-x,o-x script.sh | chmod ugo-x script.sh | *Any of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux system admin wants to change the group ownership of backup.tar.gz to admins. Which command should they use?

*chown :admins backup.tar.gz* | chown admins backup.tar.gz | chown backup.tar.gz :admins | chown +g admins backup.tar.gz

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user gets ""Permission denied"" when running chown on a system file in Linux. What is the most likely cause?"

The user lacks write permission for the file | The user does not have execute permission on the directory containing the file | *The user is not root or lacks necessary privileges* | The user specified incorrect command syntax

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux server admin needs to ensure that a configuration file, httpd.conf, is owned by the root user and the www-data group. Which command should they use to accomplish this task?

chown www-data:root /etc/httpd/httpd.conf | chown root www-data /etc/httpd/httpd.conf | chown www-data root /etc/httpd/httpd.conf | *chown root:www-data /etc/httpd/httpd.conf*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Linux command can be used to check whether the IP address 192.168.0.10 appears anywhere in the /etc/hosts file?

"search ""192.168.0.10"" /etc/hosts | find /etc/hosts -name ""192.168.0.10"" | *grep ""192.168.0.10"" /etc/hosts* | locate ""192.168.0.10"" /etc/hosts"

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command in Linux can be used to search the /etc directory for a file that starts with the string ""default"" and has a .conf extension?"

"find /etc -regex ""default*.conf"" | find /etc -file ""default*.conf"" | find /etc -type ""default*.conf"" | *find /etc -name ""default*.conf""*"

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux technician is looking for a file but can only recall that the file name has exactly three characters and ends with .dat. Which command should they use to search for this file in the current directory and its subdirectories?

"find . -type ""???.dat"" | *find . -name ""???.dat""* | find . -regex ""???.dat"" | find . -file ""???.dat"""

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which fsck flag in Linux enables automatic repair of any detected errors?

-n | -v | -c | *-y*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux technician has connected a USB drive identified as /dev/sdb1 and created a directory /mnt/usbdrive. Which command will make the contents of the USB drive accessible at that mount point?

mount usbdrive /dev/sdb1 | *mount /dev/sdb1 /mnt/usbdrive* | mount /mnt/usbdrive /dev/sdb1 | mount /dev/sdb1 usbdrive

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user runs the command su in Linux and is prompted for a password. Which password is requested?

The current user's password | *The root user's password* | The service account password | The default system password

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux administrator, currently logged in as staff, needs to switch to a higher-level account called sysadmin and remain in that account to modify multiple application files in the current working directory. Which command changes the session to sysadmin?

login sysadmin | sudo sysadmin | chroot sysadmin | *su sysadmin*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user was recently added to a special group with elevated rights to perform system maintenance on a Debian-based Linux distribution. When attempting to install a new application with apt install, they receive a ""Permission denied"" error. Which command would allow them to successfully install the application?"

apt su install application-name | *sudo apt install application-name* | su apt install application-name | apt sudo install application-name

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is using sudo to run administrative commands in Linux. When running a sudo command for the first time in a session, they are prompted for a password. Which password should they enter?

The root user's password | *The current user's password* | The sudo account password | The default system password

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting an Ubuntu workstation that needs the latest security patches. Which command should the technician run to refresh the local list of available packages and security updates?

sudo apt upgrade | sudo dnf update | sudo dnf upgrade | *sudo apt update*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user wants to ensure that Firefox on their Fedora client is updated to the latest available version. Which command will accomplish this?

sudo apt upgrade firefox | sudo apt update firefox | sudo dnf reinstall firefox | *sudo dnf upgrade firefox*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to display the IP address, subnet mask, and broadcast address assigned to each network interface on a Linux server. Which of the commands listed below should they run?

*ip address show* | ip route show | ip link show | ip config show

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux system is experiencing a network outage. The technician suspects an issue with the default gateway. Which command should the technician run to verify the current routing table, including the default gateway?

route print | *ip route show* | netstat -a | ip route get

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux administrator logged in as the root user needs to assign a secondary IP address of 192.168.1.25/24 to the eth0 interface. Which command should be used?

ip address set 192.168.1.25/24 dev eth0 | ip address update 192.168.1.25/24 dev eth0 | *ip address add 192.168.1.25/24 dev eth0* | ip address assign 192.168.1.25/24 dev eth0

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which keyboard shortcut in Linux can be used with the ping command to display its statistics summary?

Ctrl + P | Ctrl + S | Ctrl + R | *Ctrl + C*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the default behavior of the Linux ping command when no packet count is provided?

Sends 4 echo requests and stops | *Runs continuously until interrupted* | Stops after detecting packet loss | Terminates after a set timeout

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux administrator enters curl https://server.local at the terminal. What does this command do by default?

Downloads the webpage content to a file | Launches the default web browser and navigates to the URL | *Retrieves and displays the webpage content in the terminal* | Opens a secure shell session with the server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After running the command dig server.example.com in the Linux terminal, the output in the answer section shows an A record. What does this record type specifically indicate?

The server's canonical name | The server's authoritative name server | The server's reverse lookup address | *The server's IPv4 address*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer(s) to the typical output of the Linux traceroute command? (Select all that apply)

*Sequence of network devices (hops) from source to destination* | *Hostname (if resolvable), followed by the IP address, for each hop* | *Round-trip time measurements (in milliseconds) for each hop* | Total number of packets sent and received

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux network admin runs traceroute to a remote server. One of the intermediary hops shows * * *, but all subsequent hops display normal response times. What is the most common cause of this outcome?

One of the intermediary routers is offline | The traceroute command failed to execute properly | *Router did not respond within the timeout period* | The entire network path is down

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] While viewing a man page in Linux, which key advances the display by one full screen at a time?

Enter | *Spacebar* | Tab | Shift

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After opening a manual page, a Linux user wants to quit back to the shell prompt. Which key(s) should be pressed?

Ctrl+C | *Q* | Esc | Shift + X

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux system admin wants to view the contents of multiple log files in the terminal. Which command will output the contents of log1.txt followed by log2.txt in the same terminal view?

cat log1.txt + log2.txt | cat log1.txt | log2.txt | *cat log1.txt log2.txt* | cat log1.txt > log2.txt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician wants to append the contents of notes.txt to the end of log.txt. Which Linux command will add the contents of notes.txt to the bottom of log.txt without overwriting it?

cat notes.txt > log.txt | cat notes.txt + log.txt | *cat notes.txt >> log.txt* | cat notes.txt | log.txt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux administrator wants to combine the contents of file1.txt and file2.txt into a new file called combined.txt. Which command accomplishes this?

*cat file1.txt file2.txt > combined.txt* | cat file1.txt + file2.txt = combined.txt | cat file1.txt file2.txt | combined.txt | cat file1.txt file2.txt >> combined.txt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user is running the top command in Linux and notices a process consuming a large amount of CPU resources. Which key should the user press to sort the process list by CPU usage?

*P* | M | C | R

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux technician is viewing processes in top and needs to sort them by RAM usage. In the top interface, which key reorders processes based on memory consumption?

R | C | P | *M*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A system administrator is using the top command in Linux and wants to terminate a process with PID 4567. Which key should be pressed within top to initiate this action?

X | R | T | *K*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which ps command in Linux is used to display a minimal snapshot of processes for the current shell?

ps -a | *ps* | ps -e | ps -f

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux admin suspects a process running under a system account is causing issues. The administrator needs to see a list of all running processes system-wide, including those not associated with a specific terminal session. What is the most appropriate command to get a complete static list of all processes?

ps -f | ps | ps -s | *ps -e*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An administrator needs to identify if a service called ""sshd"" is currently running on a Linux server. The administrator wants to quickly check whether any process contains ""sshd"" in its name. Which command line combination will show only the lines from the process list that contain the ""sshd"" string?"

ps -e > sshd | grep sshd ps -e | *ps -e | grep sshd* | sshd | ps -e

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux user needs to identify which subdirectories under /usr/local are taking up the most space. For better readability, the user wants to view the output values in KBs, MBs, or GBs. Which command should be used?

df -h /usr/local | ls -lh /usr/local | *du -h /usr/local* | df -a /usr/local

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An administrator needs to quickly determine the amount of free and used disk space across all mounted filesystems on a Linux server. The administrator wants the output displayed in an easy-to-read format. What is the most appropriate command to use in this case?

du -h | df -a | ls -lh | *df -h*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux administrator is auditing user accounts for security compliance. The administrator needs to determine password hashes, password aging policies, and expiration data for each account. Which file stores this information?

/etc/passwd | /etc/group | */etc/shadow* | /etc/sudoers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux system admin is reviewing a user account entry in /etc/passwd. The second field for a user's entry contains the character 'x'. What does the 'x' in this field indicate?

The account is disabled | *The user's password hash is stored in /etc/shadow* | The user has a blank password | The user is not part of a group

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An administrator needs to view the list of all user accounts on the Linux system along with their associated information such as user/group ID numbers, home directory, and default shell. Which file should be checked?

/etc/shadow | /etc/group | /etc/login.defs | */etc/passwd*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Linux technician is troubleshooting name resolution and wants to confirm whether a hostname is being resolved from a local static entry rather than DNS. Which file should the technician inspect?

/etc/hostname | /etc/nsswitch.conf | */etc/hosts* | /etc/resolv.conf

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the main functional difference between the mount command and the /etc/fstab file in Linux?

mount is for local drives; /etc/fstab is for network drives | mount is for read-only mounts; /etc/fstab is for read/write mounts | *mount creates temporary mounts; /etc/fstab defines mounts that persist across reboots* | mount requires a restart to take effect; /etc/fstab does not

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During troubleshooting, a Linux admin notices that hostname lookups are failing even though /etc/hosts contains valid entries. Which file determines the DNS servers that should be queried for hostnames not listed in /etc/hosts?

/etc/nsswitch.conf | /etc/network/interfaces | */etc/resolv.conf* | /etc/hostname

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the statements listed correctly describes application compatibility with different CPU architectures?

A 32-bit hardware can run both 32-bit and 64-bit applications | A computer with a 32-bit CPU can run 64-bit applications without compatibility issues | A 64-bit hardware can run only 64-bit applications | *A computer with a 64-bit CPU can run most 32-bit applications*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which scenario would most likely allow integrated graphics to be sufficient?

High-end gaming | *Web browsing and email* | Professional video editing | 3D rendering

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which factor differentiates a dedicated graphics card from an integrated graphics solution?

A dedicated graphics card has its own VRAM | Integrated graphics uses system RAM | Dedicated graphics cards deliver higher performance | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A software download page lists a GPU with at least 4 GB of VRAM as a requirement. Which type of graphics card is needed to fulfill this requirement?

Integrated graphics | Onboard graphics | Any graphics controller option | *Dedicated graphics card*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A 32-bit operating system typically supports a maximum of:

*4 GB of RAM* | 8 GB of RAM | 16 GB of RAM | 32 GB of RAM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the theoretical limit of addressable RAM for a 64-bit CPU?

64 GB | 128 GB | 256 GB | *None of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following terms is commonly used to denote a 32-bit CPU architecture?

x32 | x48 | x64 | *x86*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to 64-bit CPU architecture?

x32 | x48 | *x64* | x86

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The presence of the Program Files (x86) folder on the C: drive in MS Windows indicates that the PC takes advantage of 32-bit architecture and OS version.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In certain software licensing models, an application might require the presence of a connected external hardware token before it can run. These devices function as physical license keys, ensuring that the software only operates when the token is attached to the system. Common implementations of external hardware tokens include USB-based dongles or smart cards that must be inserted into a reader.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Computer software installations often require additional disk space beyond the installer size. This extra space supports the expansion of compressed installer archives, creation of temporary files during setup, scratch space for processing, and post-installation growth from logs, caches, and updates.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user needs to run a legacy accounting application designed for Windows 7 on a Windows 11 PC. Which operating system feature should allow the software to execute on Windows 11?

Windows AppLocker | Windows Sandbox | *Windows Compatibility Mode* | Windows PowerShell

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following solutions allows an application designed for a specific operating system to run locally on a device within a different operating system architecture? (Select 2 answers)

*Emulator software* | Multiboot environment | *Virtualization* | Application sandboxing | Compatibility mode

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A 32-bit application is being installed on a 64-bit Windows 11 system. What is the expected behavior?

The application will fail to install due to architecture mismatch | The user will be prompted to switch OS versions to complete the installation | *The application will install and run using WOW64* | The system will create a sandbox environment for the application

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a digital representation of an optical disc that can be mounted on an operating system?

VHD file | CUE file | *ISO file* | WIM file

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] One of the ways of confirming that a software application comes from a trusted source is the verification of its digital signature. A digitally signed software proves the identity of the developer and guarantees that the application code has not been tampered with since it was signed. The authenticity and integrity of the application's code can also be verified by comparing results of a cryptographic hash function (original hash published by the application developer vs. hash obtained from a downloaded app).

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician configures a reference computer with the operating system, drivers, and applications, then captures this configuration and replicates it to multiple PCs over the network. What is this process called?

Network boot | Remote installation | *Image deployment* | Disk cloning

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] When installing a new application, it is essential to consider its potential impact across multiple areas. On the device level, applications may require significant CPU, RAM, GPU, or storage resources, and in some cases external hardware, which can affect overall system performance. From a network perspective, applications that rely on updates, cloud services, or continuous communication may increase bandwidth consumption and impact latency. In terms of operation, software can influence system stability, compatibility with other applications, security posture, and user workflows. Finally, at the business level, factors such as licensing, compliance requirements, productivity, downtime, and data protection must be evaluated to ensure the application aligns with organizational needs.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is configuring a cloud-based email account for a user. The user needs to access their email from multiple devices and ensure that all changes, such as marking an email as read or moving it to a folder, are synchronized across all devices. Which protocol is the best choice?

POP3 | HTTPS | SMTP | *IMAP4*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user wants only a specific folder from their cloud storage to be available locally on a laptop. What feature controls individual folders that are downloaded for local access?

Offline access | Folder mirroring | Local caching | *Selective sync*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Cloud-based collaboration platforms often provide multiple integrated tools to support teamwork, including:

Instant messaging | Document editing | Videoconferencing | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Enabling identity synchronization between on-premises systems and cloud services allows users to log in to both with a single set of credentials.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is auditing license usage for a cloud-based application. What tool is typically used to view license assignments and availability?

Local user account settings | Domain controller | Credential manager software | *Admin dashboard or portal*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary function of bollards as a physical security control?

To prevent tailgating through secure areas | *To deter and physically stop vehicle intrusions* | To prevent unauthorized pedestrian entry | To restrict both people and cars simultaneously

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An access control vestibule (also known as a mantrap) is a physical security access control system used to prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to restricted areas. An example mantrap could be a two-door entrance point connected to a guard station where an individual entering from the outside remains locked inside until they provide the required authentication token to unlock the inner door.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A facility implements badge readers at entry doors, requiring staff to present RFID cards to unlock them. This setup is an example of which type of security measure?

Logical security control | Administrative security control | *Physical security control* | Technical security control

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What type of physical security control does video surveillance represent?

Preventive control | Compensating control | *Detective control* | Corrective control

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which physical security measure often works together with motion sensors to provide real-time alerts of unauthorized activity?

Proximity readers | Smart locks | Perimeter lighting | *Alarm systems*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following security controls are designed to physically prevent unauthorized access? (Select 2 answers)

Motion sensors | *Door locks* | Video surveillance | Alarm systems | *Equipment locks*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company wants a physical security control measure that can provide both deterrence and on-site, in-person response to suspicious activity. Which of the solutions listed below should the company implement?

CCTV monitoring | Alarm system with motion sensors | *Security guards* | Intrusion detection system

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A business wants to reduce the likelihood of both unauthorized pedestrian and vehicle access across its entire restricted perimeter. Which physical security control would best serve this purpose?

Bollards | Turnstiles | Security guards | *Fencing*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers describe the characteristics of a key fob? (Select 3 answers)

*Contains a simple embedded chip with a unique identifier or code* | *Often used as a simple, single-purpose physical access security token* | Credit card-sized, flat plastic card | Multi-purpose use for both physical and logical access, identity, and finance | Contains an embedded chip that can perform complex functions like encryption and data processing | *Small, portable plastic device, often attached to a keyring*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the features listed below apply to smart cards? (Select 3 answers)

Contains a simple embedded chip with a unique identifier or code | Small, portable plastic device, often attached to a keyring | *Contains an embedded chip that can perform complex functions like encryption and data processing* | *Multi-purpose use for both physical and logical access, identity, and finance* | Often used as a simple, single-purpose physical access security token | *Credit card-sized, flat plastic card*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician configures an access control system that allows employees to unlock doors by holding their smartphone near a reader. This technology is an example of what type of security measure?

Biometric authentication | *Mobile digital key* | Two-factor authentication | Hardware security token

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A locked cabinet with a corresponding sign-out log is a standard procedure to maintain accountability and tracking for:

*Physical keys* | Key fobs | Smart cards | Access badges

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the context of IT security, the term ""Biometrics"" refers to both physiological (biological) characteristics of the human body and behavioral traits that can be used for identification and access control purposes. Physiological biometrics are based on static, physical characteristics of the human body, such as fingerprints, retina scans, and facial features, while behavioral biometrics are based on patterns and traits derived from human actions, such as keystroke dynamics, gait, and voice patterns."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A security system uses infrared light to scan the unique pattern of blood vessels at the back of a user's eye to grant access. This is an example of what type of biometric technology?

Iris scanner | Facial recognition technology | Eye-tracking authentication | *Retina scanner*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which biometric technology is widely used for mobile device authentication due to low cost and ease of integration?

*Fingerprint scanner* | Retina scanner | Voice recognition | Palm print scanner

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A large corporation needs a biometric solution for a restricted server farm. The solution must provide strong security and be difficult to spoof. Of the available options, which physical access control method would be the best choice?

Fingerprint scanner | Voiceprint authentication system | Facial recognition terminal | *Palm print scanner*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which technology uses biometric data to identify or verify a person based on their facial features?

FAR | AFIS | *FRT* | FRR

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Voice recognition (or voiceprint recognition) is a biometric authentication method used in physical access security systems to identify or verify individuals based on unique vocal characteristics such as pitch, tone, and speech patterns. A key advantage of this technology is its convenience and ability to be used remotely, enabling secure access without the need for physical contact or additional devices. A key disadvantage is that its accuracy can be affected by background noise, poor audio quality, or changes in a person’s voice due to illness or aging. In addition, using a voiceprint as the only form of authentication makes a system vulnerable to replay attacks, where it can be bypassed with a high-quality recording of an authorized user's voice.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary role of lighting as a physical access security measure?

Detection | Surveillance | Prevention | *Deterrence*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In a multi-layered physical security system, where would a magnetometer typically be placed?

At the final access point, just before the secure room | On the perimeter fence to detect intruders | *At the building's main entrance as a primary screening point* | Inside the secure room to prevent theft

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A security rule that prevents users from accessing information and resources that lie beyond the scope of their responsibilities is referred to as:

Implicit deny policy | Zero Trust model | *Principle of least privilege* | Separation of duties

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a security approach that eliminates implicit trust from networks requiring all users and devices to be continuously verified before being granted access to resources?

Least privilege access | AAA framework | *Zero Trust model* | Policy-driven access control

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a logical security rule set that controls access to objects and specifies the operations allowed on a given object?

AUP | SSO | *ACL* | OTP

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Authentication processes can be based on various categories of factors. These include knowledge-based factors, such as usernames, passwords, PINs, or security question answers (""something you know""); possession-based factors, such as smart cards, key fobs, or security keys (""something you have""); inherence-based factors, including unique physical traits such as fingerprints, iris scans, facial recognition, or voice patterns (""something you are""); and location-based factors, such as geolocation data or IP addresses (""somewhere you are""). A multifactor authentication system requires the implementation of authentication factors from two or more distinct categories."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After typing in a password, a login system prompts the user to enter a one-time verification code sent to the account's associated inbox. Which MFA method is being used?

TOTP | SMS | *Email* | PIN code

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician begins the login process by entering a password. The system detects that the account is configured for multifactor authentication and prompts the technician for a USB-based cryptographic key. What type of MFA device is the technician using?

Software token | OTP display key fob | *Hardware token* | USB flash drive

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting a user's failed login attempt. The user states they are using an authenticator application, and the code they entered was incorrect. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

The user is not connected to the internet | *The user's phone is set to the wrong time* | The user's password was entered incorrectly | The MFA service is experiencing an outage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After entering a password, a user receives a text message containing a one-time verification code. Which delivery method is being used for the second MFA prompt?

PIN code | Email | *SMS* | TOTP app

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In voice call multifactor authentication, a user receives a one-time verification code or approval prompt through an automated or live telephone call.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following statements about TOTP is not true?

Generated offline using a shared secret and the current time | Requires time synchronization between client and server | *Its validity does not depend on short, recurring time intervals* | Commonly implemented in authenticator apps and hardware tokens

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which acronym is used to describe a general category of single-use authentication codes?

MFA | PIV | *OTP* | SSO

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is a markup language used for exchanging authentication and authorization data?

OAuth | XML | *SAML* | XHTML

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login on only one of the components is called:

NAC | *SSO* | AAA | MFA

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a security measure that grants temporary, on-demand, and limited-time access to privileged accounts?

Zero Trust architecture | Context-based authentication | Principle of least privilege | *Just-in-time access*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following refers to a cybersecurity tool dedicated to managing, monitoring, and securing access to critical systems and accounts with elevated privileges?

OAuth | IAM | RBAC | *PAM*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of software provides a solution specifically designed to centrally manage, monitor, and secure mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets?

UEM | EDR | IAM | *MDM*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a dedicated software or hardware-based security solution designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information?

DEP | IPS | *DLP* | UTM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following refers to a comprehensive security framework that manages the entire lifecycle of a digital identity (such as a user account or device) and controls how it can access organizational resources?

AAA | SSO | RADIUS | *IAM*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary purpose of a directory service in a network environment?

Network file system storage and retrieval | Hosting and synchronization of data between devices | *Centralized management of users and network objects* | Storage and delivery of web-based content

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] LDAP is an example of:

Data encryption protocol | Address resolution protocol | *Directory access protocol* | File exchange protocol

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Windows 10 and 11, which section of the Windows Security app is used to turn Microsoft Defender Antivirus on or off?

Firewall & network protection | App & browser control | Device security | *Virus & threat protection*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which feature in Windows 10 and Windows 11 enables automatic installation of Microsoft Defender Antivirus definitions?

Task Scheduler | Virus & threat protection settings | *Windows Update* | System Configuration

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Windows 10 and Windows 11, which section of the Windows Security app provides the option to manually update Microsoft Defender Antivirus definitions?

*Virus & threat protection* | Firewall & network protection | App & browser control | Device performance & health

[MULTISELECT] Which Control Panel paths in Windows provide access to turn Windows Defender Firewall on or off? (Select 2 answers)

Control Panel (category view) > Network and Internet > Windows Defender Firewall | Control Panel (icon view) > System and Security > Windows Defender Firewall | Control Panel (category view) > Security and Maintenance > Windows Defender Firewall | *Control Panel (icon view) > Windows Defender Firewall* | *Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > Windows Defender Firewall*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which section of the Windows Security app in Windows 10 and 11 contains the option to turn the firewall on or off?

Windows Defender Firewall | Virus & threat protection settings | Device security | *Firewall & network protection*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Windows 10 and 11, a firewall interface providing options to create custom exceptions for applications or ports can be accessed via:

Control Panel (icon view) > Windows Defender Firewall > Advanced settings > right-click on Inbound/Outbound Rules > New Rule... | Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > Windows Defender Firewall > Advanced settings > right-click on Inbound/Outbound Rules > New Rule... | Windows Security app > Firewall & network protection > Advanced settings > right-click on Inbound/Outbound Rules > New Rule... | *Any of the above paths*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which navigation path in Windows 10 and Windows 11 can be used to access a simplified interface for allowing or blocking applications across private or public networks?

Control Panel (icon view) > Windows Defender Firewall > Allow an app or feature through Windows Defender Firewall | Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > Windows Defender Firewall > Allow an app or feature through Windows Defender Firewall | Windows Security app > Firewall & network protection > Allow an app through the firewall | *Any of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of Windows account is primarily used for an offline, single-device setup?

Microsoft account | *Local account* | Domain account | Administrator account

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an SSO account type in Windows?

Local account | *Microsoft account* | Administrator account | Standard account

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which user group in Windows 10 and 11 can use most of the software and change system settings that do not affect other users or the computer's security?

*Standard Users* | Guests | Power Users | Administrators

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a built-in Windows account type that has complete and unrestricted access to a computer or domain?

Account Operators | Power Users | Network Configuration Operators | *Administrators*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Microsoft Windows environments, the Guest account is intended for users who do not have a permanent account on a Windows computer or domain. Users with this type of account cannot install software or hardware, change system settings, create passwords, or access protected files and folders. However, because the Guest account allows logging on to a network, browsing the Internet, and shutting down the computer, it is recommended to keep it disabled unless temporarily required for a specific purpose.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which user group in Windows 10 and Windows 11 is largely a legacy local group with limited administrative rights retained for backward compatibility with older applications and Windows versions?

Standard Users | Replicators | Account Operators | *Power Users*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Windows authentication method is device-independent, allowing users to log into different systems with the same set of credentials?

PIN | *Username and password* | Windows Hello | Fingerprint

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Windows sign-in method uses a device-specific code that is stored locally and not transmitted over the network?

Username and password | *PIN* | Security key | Passwordless authentication

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to built-in biometric authentication options available in Windows 10 and Windows 11? (Select all that apply)

*Fingerprint* | Smart card sign-in | Voice recognition | Retina scan | *Facial recognition*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician sets up a new Windows 11 computer for a user. The user wants to log in once and have automatic access to Microsoft 365, OneDrive, and the Microsoft Store without re-entering credentials. Which feature enables this functionality?

Domain-based authentication | Biometric authentication | *Single sign-on authentication* | Passwordless authentication

[MULTISELECT] Windows Hello is a built-in authentication system in Windows 10 and Windows 11 that lets users sign in to devices, apps, and online services without relying solely on a traditional password. Instead, it provides passwordless sign-in options such as: (Select all that apply)

*PIN-based sign-in* | *Fingerprint scan* | Voice recognition | *Facial recognition*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements describing share permissions in Microsoft Windows are true? (Select 2 answers)

*Apply exclusively to network users* | Can be set only at the file level | Apply to both network and local users | *Can be set only at the folder level*

[MULTISELECT] Which of these statements about NTFS permissions are correct? (Select 2 answers)

*Apply to both network and local users* | Can be set only at the folder level | Apply exclusively to local users | *Can be applied at the folder or file level*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows resource with conflicting NTFS and share permissions will assume:

The least restrictive permission | NTFS permissions | *The most restrictive permission* | Share permissions

[MULTISELECT] The share permissions on a Windows folder grant Read access, while the NTFS permissions grant Modify access. What are the user’s effective permission levels? (Select 2 answers)

*Read when accessing the share remotely* | *Modify when accessing the folder locally* | Read when accessing the folder locally | Modify when accessing the share remotely

[MULTISELECT] The share permissions on a Windows folder grant the user Full Control access, while the NTFS permissions grant Read access. Which of the answers listed below represent the user’s effective permission levels? (Select 2 answers)

*Read when accessing the share remotely* | Full Control when accessing the folder locally | *Read when accessing the folder locally* | Full Control when accessing the share remotely

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the correct hierarchy of precedence for permissions settings in NTFS?

Explicit Allow > Inherited Allow > Explicit Deny > Inherited Deny | *Explicit Deny > Explicit Allow > Inherited Deny > Inherited Allow* | Explicit Allow > Explicit Deny > Inherited Allow > Inherited Deny | Explicit Deny > Inherited Deny > Explicit Allow > Inherited Allow

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In MS Windows, the attrib command is used to display or modify file and folder attributes. Some of the available options for this command include read-only (R), archive (A), system (S), and hidden (H). With attrib, the ""+"" symbol sets an attribute on a file or folder, and the ""-"" symbol removes an attribute."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the correct syntax for applying the read-only attribute to a file in Windows?

*attrib +R [drive:][path][filename]* | attrib [drive:][path][filename] /R | attrib /R [drive:][path][filename] | attrib [drive:][path][filename] +R

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In NTFS, permissions inherited from a parent object, such as a folder or user group, take precedence over explicit permissions applied directly to an object.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In NTFS, a folder or file moved from one location to another on the same volume inherits the permissions of its new parent folder.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In NTFS, a folder or file copied from one location to another on the same volume retains its original permissions.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In NTFS, a file or folder copied or moved from one location to another on a different volume inherits the permissions of its new parent folder.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In NTFS, permission propagation occurs when a folder or file created inside another folder takes on (inherits) permissions applied to that folder, so that the permissions applied to the parent folder propagate down to its child objects, i.e., folders and files created inside the parent folder.

*True* | False

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The ""Run as administrator"" option is a Windows feature that launches a program with elevated system privileges, allowing it to perform tasks that a standard user account cannot, such as installing software, modifying system settings, or accessing protected files. The option can be used by right-clicking an executable or shortcut and selecting ""Run as administrator"" from the context menu, which may require administrator credentials to confirm the elevated action."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Windows Vista and newer releases of the Microsoft operating system offer a security feature that limits the privileges of software applications and access to administrative tasks. When a program makes a change that requires administrator-level permissions or a user attempts to modify system settings that require administrative access, it triggers an on-screen prompt requiring an administrator password to proceed. This functionality is known as:

ACL | *UAC* | AppLocker | SmartScreen Filter

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Windows feature enables encryption of entire drives?

FileVault | DriveCrypt | *BitLocker* | TrueCrypt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a Microsoft Windows feature specifically designed to encrypt removable drives?

BitLocker | TrueCrypt | *BitLocker To Go* | DriveCrypt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which built-in Windows component enables the encryption of individual files?

AES | HSM | *EFS* | TPM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Windows tool allows administrators to verify that a computer is successfully joined to a domain?

Group Policy Editor | Windows Security app | Computer Management | *System Properties*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company hires a new employee, and the IT administrator needs to ensure that the employee’s network drives are mapped and shared printers are available as part of their desktop setup. Which Active Directory feature should the administrator use to configure this initial desktop environment?

Task Scheduler | Local Security Policy | User Profile | *Log-in script*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An administrator needs to move a user account from the Sales Organizational Unit (OU) to the Marketing OU. Which Active Directory tool is used to perform this action?

Active Directory Domains and Trusts | Active Directory Migration Tool | *Active Directory Users and Computers* | Active Directory Sites and Services

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Active Directory feature provides each domain user with a dedicated network location to store personal documents on a network share?

Roaming profile | My Documents folder | Shared network drive | *Home folder*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An Active Directory domain admin wants to prevent users in a specific Organizational Unit (OU) from running a particular application. Which tool should the administrator use to enforce this setting?

System Configuration | *Group Policy Management Console* | Active Directory Users and Computers | Local Security Policy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tool is used to add a user to a security group in Active Directory?

Active Directory Domains and Trusts | Group Policy Object Editor | *Active Directory Users and Computers* | Group Policy Management Console

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which feature of the Windows Active Directory's Group Policy Management Console is used to ensure a user's profile folders are stored on a centralized network share rather than on their local computer?

Home folders | Roaming profiles | *Folder redirection* | Drive quotas

[MULTISELECT] What are the advantages of using SSDs for OS installations compared to traditional hard drives? (Select 3 answers)

Lower cost per gigabyte | *Improved file transfer speeds* | *Much quicker boot times* | *Faster application loading* | Higher storage capacity

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe characteristics of an internet-based OS installation method? (Select 2 answers)

Optimized for mass deployment with standardized configuration across multiple systems | Uses internal servers to deploy OS images over the local network | *Primarily suited for single users, remote workers, or when local network infrastructure is not available* | Commonly deployed via PXE/DHCP/TFTP protocols | *Relies on external servers, cloud services, or vendor websites for installation files*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] For an internet-based OS installation, what should a technician consider regarding data integrity and security of the downloaded files?

Antivirus signature updates | Local security settings | Software licensing keys | *Cryptographic hash values*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is preparing an external storage drive to serve as a bootable OS installation medium. What is the primary requirement for the computer to recognize and boot from this drive?

The operating system must support plug and play detection | The computer's internal storage drives must be disabled through BIOS/UEFI | *The BIOS/UEFI boot order must prioritize the external drive* | The external drive must be formatted using the exFAT file system

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following allows a storage drive to be safely removed and replaced while the system remains powered on and operational?

Cold-plugging | Hot spare | Stand-by drive | *Hot-swapping*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] If an operating system partition on an internal storage drive becomes corrupted and unbootable, the immediate challenge in recovering personal files (if they are not on a separate data partition) is that they become inaccessible through normal means, requiring specialized recovery methods like booting from external media or using data recovery tools.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician has physically installed a brand-new internal storage drive inside the computer case, but it is not yet recognized as usable storage. What should be the first configuration step to make the drive accessible for OS installation?

Format the drive | Partition the drive | *Initialize the drive* | Assign drive letter

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most common use case for a multiboot configuration?

Running multiple operating systems simultaneously | Keeping legacy software operational in a controlled environment | Isolating potentially harmful software away from the main OS | *Utilizing different operating systems for specific tasks*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In a multiboot environment, each operating system must reside on a separate partition or drive to prevent file system conflicts and data corruption between the different OS installations.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user wants to add a Linux distribution to an existing Windows 11 installation to create a multiboot system. Which of the actions listed below should typically be the next logical step after shrinking the Windows partition to create unallocated space for Linux?

Creating a Windows restore point | Performing a full system backup | *Installing the Linux distribution* | Reformatting the entire storage drive

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which OS installation method removes all existing data on the selected target partition?

Live OS installation | In-place upgrade | *Clean installation* | Repair installation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a method that installs a newer OS version over an existing, older version without erasing user data, applications, and settings?

Image deployment | Remote network installation | *In-place upgrade* | Repair installation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In enterprise environments, the process of setting up operating systems across many devices using a single, consistent configuration template is referred to as:

In-place upgrade | Remote network installation | *Image deployment* | Unattended installation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An IT team is deploying a batch of newly purchased desktops across multiple office locations. The devices have no pre-installed operating systems or removable media, and physical access is limited. To install the OS remotely, the department has already set up a server with a centralized OS image and uses DHCP and TFTP to deliver boot instructions. Which installation method should they use?

Internet-based installation | Unattended installation | Image deployment | *Remote network installation*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An organization wants to automate the deployment of operating systems on dozens of diskless workstations that do not have any local storage. The workstations must boot directly from the network every time they power on, retrieving the OS image from a central server without any local media involved. Which technology allows this network boot and OS loading process?

NFS | SMB | WDS | *PXE*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which installation method requires no manual input at any stage, fully automating OS deployment across multiple systems?

*Zero-touch deployment* | Remote network installation | Image-based deployment | Lite-touch installation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a built-in solution for restoring an operating system to its factory settings without the use of external media?

Disk imaging | System restore | *Recovery partition* | Shadow copy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which statement best describes the outcome of a typical Windows repair installation?

User applications are removed | User data is deleted | User application settings are reset | *User data is preserved*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During the installation of a new operating system on a custom-built PC, the installer fails to detect the RAID array configured on the system. What is the most appropriate action to resolve this issue?

Restart the installation and select a different drive | Update the BIOS firmware to the latest version | *Load the appropriate third-party RAID drivers from external media* | Replace the RAID controller with a compatible model

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is attempting to install a new operating system on a recently assembled custom workstation. During the installation process, the installer fails to detect the installed NVMe solid-state drive, preventing the installation from proceeding. All physical connections to the NVMe drive have been verified as secure. What should the technician do to resolve this problem?

Update the workstation's BIOS/UEFI firmware | Restart the installation and select a different drive | *Load the appropriate third-party NVMe drivers from external media* | Verify the boot order in the system's BIOS/UEFI settings

[MULTISELECT] What are the key benefits of dividing a storage drive into multiple partitions? (Select 3 answers)

*Improved data organization* | *Support for multiboot environments* | Larger physical disk capacity utilization | *Simplified backup and recovery* | Faster data transfer speeds

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A 128-bit number used by computer systems and software to uniquely identify hardware instances, software components, or configuration data is known as:

OID | *GUID* | URI | OUI

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to GPT? (Select 3 answers)

*Support for disks larger than 2 TB* | Legacy BIOS | Overall number of partitions limited to 4 | Maximum disk size limit of 2 TB | *UEFI firmware* | *Up to 128 primary partitions*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe the characteristics of the MBR partition style? (Select 3 answers)

*Legacy BIOS* | Up to 128 primary partitions | *Maximum disk size limit of 2 TB* | *Overall number of partitions limited to 4* | Support for disks larger than 2 TB | UEFI firmware

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In GPT disk architecture, each partition is labeled with a unique identifier known as GUID.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the wireless encryption schemes listed below offers the highest level of protection?

WEP | *WPA3* | TKIP | WPS

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following characteristics apply to the WPA2/WPA3 Personal mode? (Select 3)

Provides unique login credentials for each user | Typically deployed in business or enterprise networks | Authentication through 802.1X with a RADIUS server | *Simple to set up without requiring extra infrastructure* | *Commonly used in home or SOHO environments* | *Authentication via a single, shared password*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of the WPA2/WPA3 Enterprise mode? (Select 3 answers)

Authentication via a single, shared password | Simple to set up without requiring extra infrastructure | *Typically deployed in business or enterprise networks* | *Authentication through 802.1X with a RADIUS server* | *Provides unique login credentials for each user* | Commonly used in home or SOHO environments

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a stopgap protocol introduced with WPA to replace WEP?

AES | *TKIP* | CCMP | RC4

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the cryptographic algorithms listed below is the least vulnerable to attacks?

*AES* | DES | RC4 | 3DES

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] For a wireless client to be able to connect to a network, the security type (e.g., WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3) and encryption type (e.g., TKIP or AES) settings on the connecting host must match the corresponding wireless security settings on a WAP.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which AAA solution uses UDP as its transport protocol, combines authentication and authorization, and is commonly deployed for network access control such as VPNs and Wi-Fi authentication?

*RADIUS* | LDAP | TACACS+ | Kerberos

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following AAA solutions relies on TCP, separates authentication, authorization, and accounting, and is commonly used for device administration in enterprise networks?

OAuth | *TACACS+* | SAML | RADIUS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the primary and default authentication protocol used in Windows Active Directory environments to enable SSO?

RADIUS | NTLM | *Kerberos* | MS-CHAP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following examples meets the requirement of multifactor authentication?

Smart card and mobile digital key | *Password and biometric scan* | Username and pattern lock (on a device screen) | Retina scan and voice recognition

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Trojan horse is a type of software that performs harmful actions under the guise of a legitimate and useful program. The most characteristic feature of a Trojan horse is that while it may function as a legitimate program and offer expected functionality, it also contains a concealed portion of malicious code that the user is unaware of.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a collection of software tools used by a hacker to mask intrusion and obtain administrator-level access on a computer or network?

*Rootkit* | Spyware | Backdoor | Trojan

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements apply to the definition of a computer virus? (Select 2 answers)

*A self-replicating computer program that contains a malicious segment* | *Malicious code that typically attaches itself to an application or executable component* | A standalone malicious program that replicates itself over a network | Malware that can operate independently without any interaction | A self-contained malicious program that does not require a host to propagate

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Malicious software collecting information about users without their knowledge/consent is referred to as:

Adware | Cryptomalware | Ransomware | *Spyware*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Malware that restricts access to a computer system by encrypting files or locking the entire system until the user performs a requested action is known as:

Grayware | Adware | *Ransomware* | Spyware

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to examples of spyware? (Select 2 answers)

Backdoor | *Stalkerware* | *Keylogger* | Port scanner | Rootkit

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of malware that infects the storage drive area containing the necessary data and code used to start the OS is called:

Rootkit | Worm | *Boot sector virus* | Trojan horse

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a malware type designed to exploit computing resources without the owner's consent?

Adware | PUP | Fileless malware | *Cryptominer*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below describes the key characteristics of stalkerware? (Select best answer)

Provides hidden remote access while transmitting user activity to an external party | Captures on-screen output and periodic screenshots to reveal user activity | Installs tracking cookies and monitors user activity across websites for profiling | *Collects location data, call logs, messages, and app usage for continuous monitoring*

[MULTISELECT] Fileless malware: (Select 3 answers)

Modifies the boot sector of the storage drive for persistence | Requires a rootkit to hide its presence on a drive | *Abuses legitimate operating system tools to execute code* | *Operates entirely in RAM without writing its payload to storage* | *Evades traditional signature-based antivirus detection*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements can be used to describe a PUP? (Select all that apply)

*Installed with user consent but often without fully informed agreement* | *Not explicitly classified as malware by AV software* | *May adversely affect security or performance, compromise privacy, or display unsolicited ads* | *Commonly bundled with other software* | Installed without user consent and considered illegal | Explicitly detected and classified as malware by AV applications

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Windows 10 and 11, Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) is the modern recovery and troubleshooting environment that replaces the legacy:

Startup Repair | Windows Boot Manager | System Restore | *Recovery Console*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a security solution that provides the capability for detection, analysis, response, and real-time monitoring of cyber threats at the device level?

DLP | IDS | UTM | *EDR*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which dedicated cybersecurity service offers continuous monitoring, threat detection, and incident response typically delivered by an external provider?

SIEM | MSP | *MDR* | SaaS

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following acronyms refers to a unified cybersecurity approach that collects and correlates data across multiple security layers (such as endpoint, network, and cloud) for enhanced threat detection and response?

UTM | SWG | *XDR* | WAF

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary purpose of antivirus signature updates?

Patching vulnerabilities in the operating system | Optimizing the antivirus scanning speed | Reducing the frequency of false positives | *Identifying newly discovered malware variants*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Unlike traditional antivirus, which relies mainly on signature-based detection, anti-malware software enhances threat detection by using advanced methods such as behavioral analysis (observing program behavior at runtime) and heuristic scanning (checking code for suspicious patterns) to identify evolving threats like polymorphic malware (code that constantly changes), rootkits (hidden persistence mechanisms), and zero-day exploits (unknown threats) that may evade traditional signature-based detection.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the solutions listed below would be the best choice for real-time protection against spam and phishing attacks?

Host-based AV software | Email client filter | Cloud-based email service | *Email security gateway*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following firewall types is specifically designed to protect a single physical end-user device?

Hardware firewall | Application-layer firewall | Next-generation firewall | *Software firewall*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What type of threat is antiphishing training primarily designed to prevent?

Data exfiltration | Unauthorized physical access attempts | *Social engineering attacks* | Insider threat

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows technician determines that a system infected with persistent malware cannot be cleaned using antivirus tools. Which of the actions listed below should be performed next to ensure system integrity?

Reboot the system in Safe Mode | Run a disk defragmentation | Roll back the system to a restore point | *Reinstall the operating system*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answer choices is an example of a threat vector type that is typical for voice communication?

Pharming | *Vishing* | Phishing | Smishing

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below refers to a threat vector commonly associated with SMS-based communication?

Phishing | Vishing | *Smishing* | Pharming

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Quick Response (QR) code phishing is a form of social engineering in which attackers embed malicious URLs into QR codes. These codes may appear in emails, on posters, product packaging, websites, or digital displays, and can be read with a mobile device's camera or a dedicated QR scanning app. Once scanned, they may redirect users to fake login pages, initiate malware downloads, or capture sensitive information.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a phishing attack aimed at specific individuals or groups?

Email spoofing | Whaling | *Spear phishing* | Watering hole attack

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A senior company executive receives a personalized email, appearing to be from an external law firm, demanding urgent settlement of a fictitious legal matter. This type of phishing attack is an example of:

Spear phishing | Business email compromise | Impersonation attack | *Whaling*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Privacy filter is a protective overlay placed on the computer screen that narrows the viewing angle, so the screen content is only visible directly in front of the monitor and cannot be seen by others nearby. This type of protection provides a countermeasure against:

Identity theft | *Shoulder surfing* | Privilege escalation | Screen scraping

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A visitor without a badge enters a company building right after a delivery worker opens the door. This situation best describes:

*Tailgating* | Shoulder surfing | Pretexting | Impersonation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician receives a call from someone claiming to be a data center manager requesting an immediate password reset for a critical account. This scenario is an example of:

Identity theft | Phishing | Unauthorized access | *Impersonation*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the context of computer security, the term ""Dumpster diving"" refers to the practice of searching through trash for discarded documents or storage media. Found items may contain sensitive data, such as employee names, positions, and other confidential information, which can be used for malicious purposes."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is a cyberattack that disrupts access to a website, service, or network by overwhelming it with excessive traffic or malicious requests from a single, compromised source. A more advanced form of DoS attack where multiple compromised systems flood a target with traffic, making it harder to detect and defend against, is referred to as:

Syn flood | Amplification attack | *DDoS* | MitM attack

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The term ""Evil twin"" refers to a rogue WAP set up for eavesdropping or stealing sensitive user data. The evil twin replaces a legitimate AP by advertising its own presence with the same SSID, which causes networked hosts to perceive it as the correct AP to connect to."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An attack that takes advantage of a previously unknown software vulnerability that the developer has not yet patched is known as:

Trojan horse | Backdoor exploit | Logic bomb | *Zero-day attack*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which term best describes a situation where an attacker falsifies an identifier (email address, IP address, MAC address, caller ID, or website) to appear as a trusted source, with the intent to deceive targets, bypass filters, or redirect traffic for malicious purposes?

Phishing | Impersonation | *Spoofing* | Pretexting

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below describe an on-path attack? (Select 3 answers)

*Attackers intercept and modify the packets sent between two communicating devices* | Attackers must have physical access to the network infrastructure to execute an on-path attack | *Attackers can impersonate one of the communicating parties to alter the communication* | An on-path attack may succeed only if at least one of the communicating devices has been compromised | *Attackers place themselves on the communication route between two devices*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a cyberattack that relies on testing every possible combination of letters, numbers, and symbols to gain unauthorized access to accounts, systems, or encrypted data?

Replay attack | *Brute-force attack* | Dictionary attack | Birthday attack

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which password attack takes advantage of a predefined list of words?

Birthday attack | Replay attack | *Dictionary attack* | Brute-force attack

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which term best describes a disgruntled employee abusing legitimate access to a company’s internal resources?

APT | *Insider threat* | Gray hat | Threat actor

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to inject malicious code into input fields, such as search bars or login forms, to execute unauthorized commands on a database?

Format string exploit | Buffer overflow | *SQL injection* | Cross-site scripting

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers can be used to describe the characteristics of an XSS attack? (Select 3 answers)

A user unknowingly submits a forged request to a trusted website | An attack that exploits the trust a website has in the user's web browser | The trusted website executes an action on behalf of the user without their consent | *An attacker injects a malicious script into a trusted website* | *An attack that exploits the trust a user's web browser has in a website* | *The attacker’s script is executed in the user’s browser*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A BEC attack is a targeted subtype of which broader social engineering attack category?

Smishing | *Phishing* | Vishing | Pharming

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which cyberattack involves impersonating executives, vendors, or trusted partners via email to trick organizations into harmful actions such as making unauthorized wire transfers or disclosing sensitive data?

APT | *BEC* | TTP | ATO

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a cybersecurity threat in which attackers compromise a trusted third-party vendor, software provider, or service in the distribution pipeline to insert malicious code, hardware, or updates?

On-path attack | Man-in-the-middle attack | *Supply chain attack* | Insider threat

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Network Access Control (NAC) defines a set of rules enforced in a network that clients attempting to access the network must comply with. With NAC, policies can be enforced before or after end-stations gain access to the network. NAC can be implemented as pre-admission NAC, where a host must, for example, be virus-free or have patches applied before it is allowed to connect to the network, and/or post-admission NAC, where a host is granted or denied permissions based on its actions after it has been provided access to the network.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A network administrator is using an asset inventory report to identify systems running web server software with recently disclosed critical security flaws. This task is an example of managing which type of vulnerability?

*Unpatched systems* | Zero-day exploits | Non-compliant systems | Configuration drift

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following controls are considered basic first-line, active defenses that reduce risk from common vulnerabilities on endpoints? (Select 2 answers)

Strong passwords | *Host-based firewall* | Security awareness training | Encryption | *Antivirus software*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The most critical security risk posed by an EOL system is that newly discovered vulnerabilities will remain permanently unpatched.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which mobile device deployment model allows employees to use their personal mobile devices to access a company's restricted data and applications?

COPE | CYOD | *BYOD* | COBO

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports slow performance and suspicious pop-ups, and a technician confirms a malware infection. Which action should the technician perform immediately after investigating and verifying the malware symptoms?

Remediate the infected system | Update the anti-malware software | *Quarantine the infected system* | Create a system restore point

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After confirming a malware infection on a Windows Home PC, which action related to System Restore should be performed before beginning remediation?

Delete user data but keep restore points intact | Create a new system restore point immediately before removal | *Disable System Restore to prevent reinfection from infected restore points* | Leave System Restore enabled to preserve recovery options

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician suspects a Windows 11 host is infected with persistent malware that prevents standard removal tools from running effectively. Which solution provides a minimal Windows environment that enables malware scanning and removal with reduced risk of interference?

Clean Boot | Windows Sandbox | Recovery Console | *Safe Mode*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE) is a lightweight version of Windows that can be booted from removable media. When used for malware removal, WinPE runs entirely outside the installed operating system, providing a minimal, trusted environment for offline scanning and remediation. Because it does not load the host OS’s services, drivers, or resident processes, the ability of in-OS malware to execute or interfere with removal is greatly reduced. This isolation makes WinPE especially effective for addressing persistent infections that can evade standard removal tools while Windows is running.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which scenario best justifies performing a full OS reinstall or system reimage?

Slow operating system performance | Failed major OS upgrades or feature updates | Corrupted user profiles | *Persistent malware surviving multiple scans*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the steps listed below are part of the remediation phase in the malware removal process? (Select 3 answers)

Quarantining the infected system | *Malware scanning and removal* | *Updating the anti-malware software* | Disabling system restore points | *Reimaging/reinstalling the system*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After successfully removing malware from a client’s Windows PC, which step should a technician perform next to maintain ongoing system protection?

Reimage the system | Create a restore point | *Schedule scans and run updates* | Educate the user

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the malware removal process on the Windows Home PC, the primary security reason for delaying the enabling of System Restore until after all security updates have been applied is to ensure the new restore point is completely clean and patched against known vulnerabilities.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] According to CompTIA's best practice procedures for malware removal, the last step of the malware removal process should be:

Implementing preventive measures | Documenting findings, actions, outcomes, and conclusions | Verifying full system functionality | *Educating the user*

[MULTISELECT] Which Microsoft Windows feature(s) provide(s) data-at-rest encryption? (Select all that apply)

FDE | *BitLocker* | SED | *BitLocker-To-Go* | *EFS*

[MULTISELECT] The two factors that are considered important for creating strong passwords are: (Select 2 answers)

*Password length* | Minimum password age | Password history | Maximum password age | *Password complexity*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is configuring a new Windows image for an organization. A primary security requirement is to maximize protection against brute-force attacks on user accounts. Which password policy setting should be set to the highest practical value to meet this requirement?

Minimum password age | Password history | *Minimum password length* | Account lockout duration

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A strong password that meets the password complexity requirement should contain: (Select the best answer)

Uppercase letters (A–Z) | Digits (0–9) | Non-alphanumeric characters if permitted (e.g., !, @, #, $) | Lowercase letters (a–z) | *A combination of characters from at least 3 character groups*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A password history policy is typically configured to a high value (e.g., 24 passwords) to enforce which primary security consideration?

Complexity | Expiration | Length | *Uniqueness*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following passwords is the most complex?

T$7C52WL4#SA | GdL3tUa8wxYz | @TxB*L$nW@Xt | *G$L3tU8KwY@m*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which password policy enforces a mandatory password change after a specific time?

Password history policy | Minimum password age policy | *Password expiration policy* | Password reuse policy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The minimum password age policy setting determines the period of time that a password can be used before the system requires the user to change it.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The maximum password age policy setting determines the period of time that a password must be used before the user can change it.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] BIOS/UEFI passwords improve the security of a computer host. These low-level passwords may, for example, prevent unauthorized users from proceeding when the computer is powered on (User password), or restrict the scope of changes a user can make in the BIOS/UEFI interface (Supervisor/Administrator password).

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user is working on a complex document and needs to step away from their workstation for a few minutes to attend a brief, unscheduled meeting. Which security best practice should the user employ to protect their data from unauthorized access while ensuring their open work remains immediately accessible upon return?

Apply a privacy filter | Set the system to standby mode | *Use a screensaver lock* | Log off the system

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which security best practice most effectively reduces the risk of unauthorized access to the user’s session and data when a workstation that is in use must be left unattended for an extended period of time?

*Log off when not in use* | Use a screensaver lock | Set the system to standby mode | Apply a privacy filter

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a physical security measure against laptop theft?

Geolocation | Tracking software | *Cable lock* | Remote wipe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A sticky note with a password kept on sight in user's cubicle would be a violation of:

Data labeling policy | Physical security policy | *Clean desk policy* | Acceptable use policy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to an end-user software tool specifically designed to store and manage login credentials?

Credential Guard | Authenticator app | SSO service | *Password manager*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The category of account management security best practices includes the practice of restricting user administrative privileges to operating systems and applications based on user duties. Operating systems simplify this process by introducing the concept of user groups equipped with different types of permissions, allowing system administrators to simultaneously manage permissions of multiple user accounts based on group membership.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an account management security measure that narrows down a user's computer access to specified hours?

Account lockout policy | Session timeout configuration | *Login time restrictions* | Just-in-time permissions

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An auditor reports that several PCs allow anonymous users to log in. What should the administrator do first to correct this issue?

Enable account lockout | Require multifactor authentication | Configure login time restrictions | *Disable the guest account*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An account lockout policy, which disables a user account after a configurable number of consecutive failed authentication attempts, is primarily applied to reduce the risk of:

Credential stuffing | Password reuse | Unauthorized physical access | *Brute-force attacks*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is a recommended best practice for securing sensitive information on a workstation when temporarily unattended?

Login time restriction | Privacy filter | *Screen timeout lock* | Account lockout policy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Setting account expiration dates is a security control primarily used for:

Guest accounts | Shared user accounts | *Temporary accounts* | Service accounts

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Changing the default administrator’s user account and password is a security control that replaces factory-set credentials with unique, secure values to prevent unauthorized access to systems and devices. This practice prevents the reuse of well-known, vendor-supplied admin credentials that are publicly documented and easily found online.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A USB stick containing a malicious script is inserted into a Windows workstation. Which security measure would prevent the automatic execution of malicious code from the newly inserted storage media?

Disable AutoPlay | Enable SmartScreen | *Disable AutoRun* | Enable AppLocker

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A workstation is configured to automatically start remote desktop and print spooler services, even though neither is needed. Which best practice should be applied to reduce attack surface and improve performance?

Block service ports in Windows Firewall | Set both services to Manual startup | *Disable unused services* | Stop unneeded processes in Task Manager

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which method of protecting mobile devices ensures that all data on the device is rendered unreadable without proper authentication?

Password protection | Data hashing | Remote wipe | *Device encryption*

[MULTISELECT] Which biometric screen lock implementations are commonly used on mobile devices? (Select 2 answers)

Keystroke dynamics | *Fingerprint* | Signature recognition | Hand geometry | *Facial recognition*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a knowledge-based authentication factor used with screen locks?

Geolocation | Digital signature | *PIN code* | Software token

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the typical, primary fallback authentication method when enabling biometrics on a mobile device?

QR code scan | Security question | *PIN or passcode* | Pattern unlock

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which screen lock method requires tracing a specific design on the screen to unlock an Android device?

Fingerprint scan | Touch ID | Swipe gesture | *Pattern unlock*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which mobile screen lock implementation, while providing no authentication, allows the user to unlock the device with a single, continuous gesture across the screen?

Pattern unlock | NFC tap-to-unlock | Proximity sensor lock | *Swipe unlock*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a type of file commonly deployed through MDM or similar systems to enforce specific settings and restrictions on mobile devices?

Security template | Manifest file | *Configuration profile* | Automation script

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company wants to ensure all mobile devices automatically receive the latest operating system and application security updates. Which process should be implemented?

Malware signature update | Vulnerability assessment | *Patch management* | Group policy enforcement

[MULTISELECT] Endpoint security software on mobile devices encompasses a range of applications designed to protect the device from security threats. Common examples of endpoint security applications include: (Select all that apply)

*Antivirus software* | *Content filters* | *Anti-malware software* | Password managers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a dedicated software type that uses positional telemetry for geofencing and remote device recovery?

Asset inventory software | Stalkerware | *Locator application* | Mobile telemetry app

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary security reason for using an MDM to enforce remote wipe capability on a mobile device?

Minimizing the impact of malicious software | *Preventing unauthorized access to corporate data* | Restoring device to its default configuration | Protecting the privacy of user's personal data

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A mobile device security administrator needs to ensure that a user's corporate data can be restored to a replacement device after the original device is permanently lost. Which solution provides this capability?

Configuration profiles | Device provisioning | Containerization | *Remote backup applications*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Failed log-in attempt restrictions are mobile device security controls that limit the number of consecutive unsuccessful authentication attempts. When the limit is reached, the device may lock temporarily, extend delay intervals between attempts, or trigger protective actions such as data wipe or account suspension. Failed log-in attempt restrictions are used to mitigate brute-force attacks and unauthorized access.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A security administrator uses MDM software to restrict camera use and prevent file transfers over USB on company-issued smartphones. What type of control is being applied?

Hardware access control | *Device policy enforcement* | Configuration profile deployment | Device provisioning

[MULTISELECT] What are the organizational and administrative advantages of a corporate-owned mobile device deployment model over a BYOD policy? (Select 3 answers)

*Full administrative control over the entire device* | Separation of personal and corporate data via containerization | Less restrictive usage policies for non-work activities | *Standardization of hardware, software, and configuration* | *Centralized device policy enforcement through MDM*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Profile security requirements are predefined security rules and configurations applied to mobile devices. They are implemented via configuration profiles, typically managed by MDM systems, to ensure compliance with organizational standards for authentication, data protection, and access control.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers can be used to describe degaussing when used as a data sanitization method? (Select 2 answers)

Effective on all storage media types | Mechanical destruction method | *Effective only on HDDs, tapes, and legacy storage media* | Relies on heat to render the drive inoperable | *Magnetic data erasure technique*

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Shredding

Mechanical

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Incineration

Thermal

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Drilling

Mechanical

[MATCHING] Choose an answer from the drop-down list on the ri: Degaussing

Magnetic

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which data sanitization method securely removes all recoverable information from a storage device while keeping the device operational for future use?

Standard format | Degaussing | Low-level format | *Erasing/wiping*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a process that reinitializes the physical sector structure of a drive and returns the device to a factory-like state, preparing it for reinstallation or repurposing?

*Low-level format* | Erasing/wiping | Full format | Standard format

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which formatting type applies a new file system structure to a storage device, leaving the existing data intact and easily recoverable by data recovery tools?

*Standard format* | Full format | Erasing/wiping | Low-level format

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is arranging the disposal of decommissioned laptops through a certified third-party recycling vendor. What should be requested from the vendor to confirm proper disposal?

Hardware inventory manifest | Chain-of-custody record | Asset disposal log | *Certificate of destruction*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the context of data destruction and disposal methods, regulatory requirements (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA) mandate secure destruction of data-bearing devices to protect sensitive information, while environmental regulations require hazardous components such as lithium-ion batteries, CRT monitors, ink/toner cartridges, or PCBs to be recycled through certified facilities instead of being discarded as general electronic waste.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is setting up a new SOHO router. After connecting with the factory default credentials, what is the most important first step to secure the device?

Disable unused ports | Update the router firmware | *Change admin credentials* | Turn off SSID broadcast

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following are direct use cases for IP filtering on a SOHO router? (Select 2 answers)

Blocking websites containing inappropriate content | *Allowing only specific internal devices to access the internet* | Preventing users from downloading and installing unauthorized applications | Allowing external hosts to connect to a specific internal service | *Blocking traffic from specific external IP addresses*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Firmware is a type of permanent software programmed into a hardware device, such as a SOHO router, that provides low-level control for the device's specific hardware. Firmware updates are patches or new versions of the device’s firmware released by the manufacturer to fix security vulnerabilities, resolve bugs, and occasionally add new features. Applying these updates is a critical security and maintenance task for network devices.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a router feature that inspects data streams for specific criteria, such as keywords, file types, or patterns, and blocks traffic that indicates inappropriate, harmful, or malicious payload?

Malware inspection | Packet filtering | Traffic shaping | *Content filtering*

[MULTISELECT] A SOHO router is positioned directly against a wall that separates the office from a public hallway. This placement primarily increases the risk of: (Select 2 answers)

Excessive signal reflection | SSID broadcast suppression | *Wireless signal leakage* | Reduced signal range within the office | *Unauthorized wireless access*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following are valid reasons to leave UPnP disabled on a SOHO router? (Select 2 answers)

*To reduce the risk of external access to internal devices* | To minimize the chance of a successful port scanning attack | To prevent the router from broadcasting its external WAN IP address | To reduce the number of connected clients on the network | *To prevent automatic port forwarding by unknown applications*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A screened subnet is an example of a semi-trusted network segment that acts as a buffer zone between the trusted internal network and untrusted external networks.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below is not considered a security best practice for access management on a SOHO router?

Disabling remote access when not needed | Enforcing strong authentication for administrative access | Using encrypted protocols (e.g., HTTPS or SSH) | Limiting access to trusted IP ranges | *Changing the default SSID to hide network identity*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A service set identifier (SSID) is the public name assigned to a wireless network that distinguishes it from other nearby networks. Since the default SSID is often a manufacturer-specific name (e.g., ""Linksys"", ""TP-Link"") followed by a suffix, changing it to a unique name helps to obscure the router’s identity."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following would hide the wireless network name from casual scanning?

Enabling encryption | Disabling unused services/ports | Enabling firewall rules for inbound traffic | *Disabling SSID broadcast*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is configuring encryption settings on a new SOHO wireless router and wants to ensure the strongest possible security levels for wireless communications. Which option should be selected?

WPA-TKIP | WPA2-AES | *WPA3-SAE* | WPA3-Enterprise

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to the typical characteristics of a SOHO guest wireless network? (Select 3 answers)

Shared encryption and authentication settings | Access to internal LAN devices | *Separate SSID* | *Guest network isolation from the main LAN* | *Open access or shared passphrase different from the main LAN* | SSID shared with the main network

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A network technician wants to secure a SOHO network by disabling unused TCP/UDP ports. Where should this configuration be applied?

Content filtering settings on the SOHO router | Port configuration settings on a network switch | *Firewall settings on the SOHO router* | TCP/IP configuration settings on client devices

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A network admin has been tasked with configuring a SOHO router to allow users from the public internet to connect to a web server that resides on the private internal network. Which router setting is required to map incoming requests from the public interface to the specific private IP address of the web server?

Port labeling | Port bonding | *Port forwarding* | Port mirroring

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Hashing is the process of using a cryptographic algorithm to generate a unique, fixed-length string of characters (a hash value or checksum) from a file, which acts as the file's digital fingerprint. By comparing the calculated hash of a downloaded file with a known, trusted hash provided by the original software vendor, a user can verify the file's integrity and authenticity. A matching hash confirms that the file has not been altered or corrupted during the download process, thereby mitigating the risks of malware or data integrity loss.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Browser patching refers to the process of keeping web browsers updated with the latest security patches, bug fixes, and performance improvements released by the vendor. Regular patching helps close vulnerabilities that attackers could exploit through malicious websites, extensions, or scripts. Enabling automatic updates and obtaining patches directly from the browser’s official source are best practices for maintaining browser security and protecting system integrity.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Browser extensions and plug-ins are software components that add functionality to web browsers. Extensions typically enhance user experience by adding features such as ad blocking, password management, or productivity tools. Plug-ins are often used to handle specific content types, such as video or interactive media. Security best practices include installing these components only from trusted sources, regularly updating them, and disabling or removing those that are unnecessary or potentially unsafe.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is reviewing web browser security configuration. Which setting should be modified to enable secure password storage?

Disable saving form data | *Enable password manager* | Disable autofill | Clear saved credentials on exit

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which network protocol ensures that all data exchanged between a web browser and a server is encrypted and protected from interception?

SFTP | IPsec | SSH | *HTTPS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the standard method for viewing a website’s certificate details in most modern browsers?

"Right-clicking the webpage and selecting the ""Inspect"" option | Hovering the mouse cursor over the website’s favicon in the tab header | Finding the relevant section in the browser’s settings menu | *Clicking the padlock or security icon in the browser’s address bar*"

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user complains that multiple advertising windows open automatically when visiting websites. Which browser feature should be enabled to prevent this behavior?

Tracking prevention | *Pop-up blocker* | Ad blocker | Private-browsing mode

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user is attempting to complete a secured transaction on a trusted e-commerce site, but the necessary third-party payment gateway window fails to load after clicking the checkout button. Which browser setting should be adjusted to resolve the issue?

*Add the site to the pop-up blocker’s allowed list* | Complete the transaction using the browser's private/incognito mode | Disable the browser's ad blocker extension | Enable compatibility view in the browser's settings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that a website automatically signs in under a previous user’s account on a shared workstation. Which browser maintenance task will prevent this issue from recurring?

Clear autofill form data | *Clear browsing data* | Clear saved passwords | Clear the browser cache

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A support technician suspects a web application is loading outdated scripts stored locally. What is the most appropriate step to resolve this issue?

Update the application | Reset the browser to default settings | *Clear the browser cache* | Reinstall the browser

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] By default, private-browsing mode:

Blocks ads or third-party trackers | Encrypts network traffic | *Prevents the local storage of browsing history and session data* | Hides user activity from websites or ISPs

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which feature allows a user to maintain consistent browser preferences, extensions, and login credentials across multiple devices?

Domain-based login | *Sign-in/browser data synchronization* | Roaming user profile | Single sign-on authentication

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following web browser features reduces bandwidth usage and improves page load performance by stopping embedded advertising media content?

Pop-up blocker | *Ad blocker* | Private-browsing mode | Proxy server

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to configure a user's web browser to route traffic through a corporate content filter. Which feature should be used to accomplish this task?

VPN connection | *Proxy server* | Web content filter extension | Firewall rule

[MULTISELECT] Which protocols are used by Secure DNS implementations to encrypt and protect DNS queries? (Select 2 answers)

IPsec | *TLS* | SFTP | VPN | *HTTPS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which web browser feature helps prevent ISPs and other intermediaries from viewing which websites are being accessed?

Proxy settings | Private-browsing mode | Do Not Track setting | *Secure DNS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Web browser feature management involves the administrative control over a browser's functionality, including the ability to enable, disable, install, or remove components such as plug-ins, extensions, and built-in features like password managers, synchronization, or geolocation. This management is critical for enforcing security policies, minimizing attack surface, reducing resource consumption, and maintaining a consistent user experience in managed environments.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The Blue Screen of Death (BSoD), also known as a stop error screen, appears in Microsoft Windows when the system encounters a critical error it cannot recover from without risking further instability. The BSoD typically displays technical details that may help advanced users diagnose the underlying cause of the error. In earlier versions of Windows, the BSoD included elements such as an error code, the memory address where the fault occurred, and the name of the driver that caused it. Beginning with Windows 8, the screen was redesigned to present a simplified message, along with a stop code, a URL, and a QR code linking to online troubleshooting resources. For Windows to recover from a BSoD, a system restart is required, which may occur automatically or be triggered manually using the computer's power button.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the tools listed below can be used to identify resource-intensive applications that cause degraded performance in Microsoft Windows?

Event Viewer | Windows Memory Diagnostic | System Information | *Task Manager*

[MULTISELECT] Which actions are most likely to resolve a Windows boot issue caused by the system attempting to start from an incorrect device? (Select 2 answers)

Disabling Secure Boot in the UEFI firmware | *Updating the boot order in BIOS* | Running Startup Repair from the Windows Recovery Environment | Booting into Safe Mode | *Disconnecting any removable drives*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) tools is specifically designed to automatically recover from operating system boot failures?

System Restore | Safe Mode | System Image Recovery | *Startup Repair*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During system boot, a user receives ""Windows Boot Configuration Data file is missing some required information"" error message. Which command-line command should a technician use to troubleshoot this error?"

bootrec /scanos | *bootrec /rebuildbcd* | bootrec /fixmbr | bootrec /fixboot

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting a Windows system that powers off unexpectedly after a GPU driver update. Which Windows utility should the technician use to manually roll back the specific driver?

System Restore | Windows Update | Control Panel | *Device Manager*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows desktop restarts several times a day without displaying a blue screen. Which system utility can a technician use to review detailed system logs and determine the cause?

*Event Viewer* | Reliability Monitor | System Information | Windows Registry

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that a Windows 11 computer restarts randomly during normal operation. A technician suspects the issue is caused by corrupted system files. Which built-in command-line tool should be run to verify and repair these files?

diskpart /rescan | chkdsk /f | *sfc /scannow* | bootrec /rebuildbcd

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows desktop powers off randomly only when non-Microsoft services are loaded. The issue does not occur in Safe Mode. Which step should be taken to isolate the cause?

Run a full antivirus scan | End background processes in Task Manager | Roll back the latest Windows update | *Perform a clean boot*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Windows diagnostic tool provides a timeline of system events and failures, including unexpected shutdowns?

*Reliability Monitor* | Event Viewer | Performance Monitor | Resource Monitor

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The ""Disable automatic restart on system failure"" option in Windows is specifically used to prevent a computer from immediately rebooting after a blue screen error, allowing time to view the stop error code and other critical information needed for troubleshooting."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In MS Windows, Services (services.msc) is a system applet used for managing background applications and processes. The applet interface can be accessed by pressing Windows logo + R key combination, typing services.msc in the Run dialog box and pressing Enter. Inside the interface, double-clicking on a service opens its Properties menu, which can also be displayed by right-clicking on the service and selecting Properties from the context menu. The General tab of the Properties menu contains all the basic controls necessary for manual service management such as Start, Stop, Pause, and Resume buttons. If a service fails to start, automatic system response can be set on the Recovery tab. Troubleshooting can also involve checking the Dependencies tab to determine which services are required by the selected service and which services depend on it.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which system utility in Windows is the primary source for reviewing detailed information regarding application crashes?

Resource Monitor | Task Manager | Performance Monitor | *Event Viewer*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] While troubleshooting a persistent application crash, a technician determines the application must be completely reinstalled. Which Windows utility would provide access to the procedure for performing this action?

Windows Troubleshooter | System Configuration | Registry Editor | *Programs and Features*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Microsoft Windows, a reserved portion of the storage drive used for data that cannot be stored in RAM due to insufficient memory space is called:

Memory buffer | System cache | *Paging file* | Swap partition

[MULTISELECT] A Windows workstation frequently displays low memory warnings while multiple applications are running. Which Windows utilities can a technician use to identify the processes consuming the most memory? (Select 2 answers)

Reliability Monitor | *Task Manager* | Windows Memory Diagnostic | Event Viewer | *Resource Monitor*

[MULTISELECT] Recommended methods for resolving or preventing low memory warnings on a Windows-based system include: (Select all that apply)

Increasing the storage drive's cache size | *Upgrading system memory* | Defragmenting the main system drive | *Closing unnecessary background applications* | *Increasing the size of the paging file*

[MULTISELECT] The common causes of USB controller resource warnings include USB devices exceeding the number of available endpoints (a.k.a. data buffers) or drawing too much power. In Microsoft Windows, troubleshooting solutions that can be applied to resolve such problems include: (Select 2 answers)

Enabling hardware virtualization in the BIOS/UEFI firmware | *Unplugging USB devices that are not in use* | Setting the affected USB device to a lower process priority in Task Manager | *Moving devices to ports linked to a different USB controller* | Changing the Windows power plan to High Performance

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Windows system instability is commonly caused by hardware failures, driver conflicts, corrupted system files, overheating, insufficient power, or incompatible software. The condition is typically manifested as unpredictable behavior such as random freezes, crashes, reboots, or system hangs. Troubleshooting involves isolating faulty components, verifying system integrity, and restoring stability through updates, diagnostics, and repairs. Common tools include Event Viewer for error analysis, Safe Mode for driver and startup isolation, Windows Memory Diagnostic for testing RAM, and the SFC utility for repairing corrupted system files.

*True* | False

"[MULTISELECT] A Windows user reports that their PC displays ""Operating system not found"" error immediately after the POST sequence. Assuming the physical storage drive is functional, which options are the most likely causes of the OS detection failure? (Select 2 answers)"

Expired Windows license key | Corrupted user profiles in Windows | *Incorrect BIOS/UEFI boot order* | Missing device drivers | *Corrupted boot records/files*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows domain user experiences long delays during login, and the profile takes several minutes to load. What is a common solution to this issue?

Modifying login script | Disabling SSO authentication | *Rebuilding Windows profiles* | Applying system updates

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following are valid causes of time drift in Windows? (Select 3 answers)

Incorrect system time zone settings | *Disabled Windows Time (W32Time) service* | *CMOS battery failure* | *Unreachable or misconfigured NTP server* | Disabled Task Scheduler service

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Time synchronization settings in Windows 10 and Windows 11 can be accessed via:

Windows Start > Settings > Time & Language > Date & time | Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Date and Time > Internet Time tab > Change settings… | Windows Control Panel (category view) > Clock and Region > Set the time and date > Internet Time tab > Change settings… | *Any of the above navigation paths*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the most common initial troubleshooting step used to resolve general mobile OS and application issues?

Performing factory reset | Applying system updates | Clearing cached data | *Power cycling the device*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that a mobile app fails to launch on their smartphone. Which of the options listed below is the best initial troubleshooting step to resolve this issue?

Free up storage space | Clear the app cache/data | *Restart the device* | Verify app permissions

[MULTISELECT] To force stop a mobile app means to: (Select all that apply)

*Terminate all processes related to the app* | *Stop the app from running in the foreground* | Disable the app until it is manually re-enabled | Revoke permissions granted to the app | *Stop the app from running in the background*

[MATCHING] For each mobile app troubleshooting action on the: Reinstall the app

Core application files are corrupted, incomplete, mismatched, or fail integrity checks

[MATCHING] For each mobile app troubleshooting action on the: Clear the app cache/data

Crashes or misbehavior are caused by corrupted temporary files, cached data, or user-specific settings

[MATCHING] For each mobile app troubleshooting action on the: Update the app

Known bugs or compatibility issues have been fixed in a newer version of the app

[MATCHING] For each mobile app troubleshooting action on the: Restart the device

Crashes are caused by temporary memory conflicts, hung processes, or system resource issues

[MATCHING] For each mobile app troubleshooting action on the: Force close the app

An app is unresponsive, frozen, or stuck in a loop

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A mobile device cannot update an app, and the system displays an error related to account authentication. What is the most likely cause?

*Expired app store credentials* | Two-factor authentication timeout | App store access restricted by firewall | Failed device compliance check

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that a mobile app from the official app store will not install on a company-managed smartphone. What is the most likely reason for this issue?

Corrupted installation files | Pending system updates | *MDM policy restrictions* | Disabled sideloading option

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following actions would be of help while troubleshooting a mobile app that becomes slow to respond?

Restart the device | Force stop and relaunch the app | Update the app | Clear the app cache/data | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Most mobile OS updates require a minimum battery percentage or a charging status to prevent the device from shutting down during the update process.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An OS update installation begins on a mobile device but consistently stops and reverses the process at 75% complete. The device has plenty of free space and is on a fast network. What does this behavior most strongly suggest?

*Corrupted update package* | Insufficient amount of RAM | Battery charge below threshold | Exceeded data usage limit

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user is troubleshooting a personally-owned mobile device that repeatedly fails to initiate an operating system update. The device is currently connected to a known good home office Wi-Fi network, plugged into a charger, and the update package is confirmed to be available for download. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the update failure?

Operating system incompatibility | Corrupted installation files | MDM policy restrictions | *Insufficient free storage space*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A tablet’s battery drains unusually fast even when the device is idle. Which of the actions listed below will most likely resolve the issue?

Reduce the screen brightness to its minimum | Check for physical damage to the battery | *Identify and restrict background applications* | Update the device's operating system

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A mobile device repeatedly loses battery charge in areas with no reliable cellular coverage. Which action can most effectively reduce the battery drain?

Enable battery saver mode | Reset the device's network settings | Turn off location services | *Enable airplane mode*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A corrupted OS installation has been isolated as the most likely cause of persistent random reboots on a user's mobile device. After backing up all user data and charging the device, what is the next troubleshooting step a technician should take?

Check for and install the latest OS update | Reboot into diagnostic startup mode | Downgrade the OS to the previous stable version | *Perform a factory reset of the device*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician observes that a mobile device reboots randomly during high CPU/GPU load. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

Outdated firmware | Degraded battery | Malware infection | *Device overheating*

[MULTISELECT] Bluetooth connectivity issues on a mobile device can be resolved by: (Select all that apply)

Moving the device closer to an access point | *Ensuring the connecting devices are adequately close to each other* | *Turning Bluetooth off and then turning it on again* | *Restarting the connected devices* | *Unpairing and then re-pairing the device*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below will have no effect on resolving Wi-Fi connectivity issues on a mobile device?

Move the device closer to the wireless router | Disable airplane mode | *Reseat the mobile device’s SIM card* | Forget the network and reconnect | Restart the wireless router | Verify the correctness of Wi-Fi credentials

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is not a valid troubleshooting step for resolving problems with contactless payment transactions on a mobile device?

Ensure the phone is awake and unlocked | If used, remove the device's EMF/RFID protective case | Enable NFC in phone settings | Verify payment card details in the mobile wallet app | Maintain very close proximity between the phone and the terminal | *Enable airplane mode to reduce wireless interference*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Modern mobile devices have the capability to automatically present landscape or portrait views of the device's screen based on how the device is being held. If the screen does not auto-rotate, the easiest troubleshooting step is to modify the appropriate system settings, such as disabling Portrait Orientation Lock on Apple devices or enabling Auto-rotate on Android devices.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the name of the package file format used by the Android OS for the distribution and installation of mobile applications?

xap | *apk* | ipa | exe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The practice of installing mobile apps from untrusted sources (i.e., websites and app stores other than the official marketplaces) is referred to as:

Sandboxing | Jailbreaking | Rooting | *Sideloading*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Sideloading via APK is the primary method for installing unverified apps from third-party sites on:

iOS | *Android* | Windows Mobile | Other

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Installing mobile apps from the official, trusted sources such as Apple's App Store or Google Play significantly reduces malware-related security risks.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the name of an iOS/Android feature that provides access to advanced system settings hidden by default from regular users?

Recovery mode | Safe Mode | Kernel mode | *Developer Mode/options*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the process of granting a regular user elevated privileges on an Android-based mobile device?

Sideloading | *Rooting* | Carrier unlocking | Jailbreaking

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The process of bypassing Apple’s built-in software restrictions on iOS/iPadOS devices is known as:

Sideloading | Carrier unlocking | Rooting | *Jailbreaking*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following enables installation of software that is not available through the official Apple App Store?

*Jailbreaking* | Rooting | Sideloading | Carrier unlocking

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below best describes the concept of application spoofing?

A situation in which a web form field accepts data other than expected (e.g., server commands) | A type of attack aimed at exploiting an unknown vulnerability in already released software | *A mobile app performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program* | A method for gaining unauthorized root access to a mobile device's operating system

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following actions would be the best initial diagnostic step to identify the source of excessive traffic on a mobile device?

Force stop background applications | Perform a network speed benchmark | *Review per-app data usage logs* | Contact the mobile service provider

[MULTISELECT] Which of the actions listed below would most likely improve degraded response times on a mobile device? (Select 3 answers)

*Installing operating system or application updates* | Reviewing CPU, RAM, or storage usage for resource-heavy apps | *Closing unnecessary background applications* | Enabling developer options to generate more detailed system logs | *Restarting the device to clear temporary processes*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A mobile device repeatedly displays data-usage limit notifications despite minimal user activity. Which condition is most likely the direct cause of this symptom?

Outdated OS | Enabled developer options | *Malicious app* | Faulty SIM card

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports their mobile device frequently loses Wi-Fi connection or cannot connect to any networks. Which of the following would be the most targeted and least disruptive troubleshooting step to resolve this problem?

Remove and reinsert the device's SIM card | Perform a hard reboot (forced restart) of the device | Forget all networks from the device's saved Wi-Fi list and try to reconnect | *Restart the device’s Wi-Fi adapter to reset the connection*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] If a mobile device intermittently loses Wi-Fi connection, which action will have no effect on improving its stability?

Forget and reconnect to the Wi-Fi network | Move closer to the Wi-Fi router or access point | Restart the Wi-Fi adapter on the device | Check for and reduce Wi-Fi interference from other devices | *Remove and reinsert the device's SIM card*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting a mobile device with no internet connectivity. They notice the device is also experiencing rapid battery drain and high data usage alerts. After isolating the device from the network, what should the technician do next?

Replace the device battery | Factory reset the device | *Perform a malware scan* | Contact the cellular provider

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After installing an application from outside the Google Play Store, an Android user notices that the device is displaying an excessive number of advertisements, including pop-ups appearing outside of the web browser. What is the most likely explanation for this issue?

Outdated operating system | Disabled pop-up blocker | *Unverified apps containing adware* | Disabled Google Play Protect

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The primary goal of delivering a fake security warning to a mobile device user is to:

Mislead the user into disabling real security features | *Trick the user into installing malicious software* | Misinform the user about the device's actual security status | Pressure the user into buying a legitimate third-party app

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An Android user reports that several system settings change back to default automatically and the device frequently reboots. A technician discovers Developer Mode was enabled and an application was sideloaded from a third-party website. What is the most effective method to completely remove the threat and restore the device to normal operation?

Disable Developer Mode | Force stop the suspicious application | *Perform a factory reset of the device* | Uninstall the application

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An employee notices their private photos and contacts have been posted to a public social media site without their consent. A technician inspects the device and finds apps with administrative privileges that the user does not remember installing. What is the best course of action to fully remediate the device and remove unauthorized access?

Uninstall the suspicious apps | Perform a full malware scan | *Reset the device to factory defaults* | Quarantine the device via MDM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting a Windows PC that suddenly cannot access network shares or the internet. The network adapter shows connectivity, and other devices on the same switch port are working fine. The technician suspects malware has altered a system file to prevent network access. Which system file, if modified by malware, is most likely responsible for redirecting domain names to incorrect IP addresses or blocking name resolution?

tcpip.sys | win.ini | *hosts* | system.ini

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user's PC displays repeated desktop alerts claiming the antivirus subscription has expired, but the antivirus dashboard shows it is active. What is the most appropriate troubleshooting step?

Turn the app notifications off | *Perform a full malware scan* | Ignore the alerts | Reinstall the antivirus software

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A PC user reports that many personal files have suddenly been renamed with unfamiliar extensions, and several folders appear to be missing. The user can no longer open any of the affected files. After disconnecting the PC from the network, what should the technician do next to identify the cause of the issue?

Restore the files from backup | *Perform a full malware scan* | Adjust user permissions | Attempt to repair the file system

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user's Windows PC displays frequent alerts requesting activation of an unknown system protection tool. What step should be taken to address this symptom?

Disable OS notifications | Ignore the alerts | Update Windows | *Run a full malware scan*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting a PC that cannot connect to Microsoft Update servers. The technician wants to use a built-in automated tool to diagnose common update problems. Which utility should the technician use?

Windows Update service | System File Checker | *Windows Update Troubleshooter* | Network Troubleshooter

[MULTISELECT] Which troubleshooting steps would help resolve random or frequent pop-ups displayed in a web browser? (Select 3 answers)

*Remove suspicious browser extensions* | *Perform a malware removal scan* | *Reset the browser to its default settings* | Use Task Manager to end browser processes | Disable the browser's JavaScript engine

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user notices that their web browser displays a warning indicating the website's SSL/TLS certificate is not trusted. What is the most likely cause?

The website contains malware | The browser's proxy settings are incorrect | The website uses HTTP instead of HTTPS | *The certificate has expired*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A web browser redirecting the user to a website other than intended might indicate a security issue related to:

TLS | HTTP | NAT | *DNS*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below is least likely to improve degraded web browser performance?

Resetting the browser to its defaults | Closing unnecessary browser tabs | Emptying the browser's cache | Removing suspicious browser extensions | Updating the browser | *Adjusting the virtual memory settings*

[MULTISELECT] When creating a new help desk ticket in a ticketing system, which basic information is typically required during the initial data collection phase? (Select 3 answers)

*User information* | Expected resolution date | *Device information* | Escalation levels required | *Problem description*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is logging a new support ticket. Which item is primarily used to ensure that future reporting can track the frequency of specific, recurring problems?

Issue description | *Category* | Severity level of the issue | Escalation level

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A support ticket regarding a system memory failure has been moved from Level 1 to a Level 2 hardware specialist. This action is documented using which specific ticketing system field?

Issue description | Ticket status | Resolution summary | *Escalation level*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A desktop technician is updating a support ticket with the steps performed to troubleshoot a network printer. Which field should contain a factual, concise summary of these steps?

Issue description | *Progress notes* | Resolution summary | Escalation level

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of structured record used in IT asset management to track hardware, software, and peripheral devices within an organization is referred to as:

Maintenance log | System configuration baseline | Onboarding checklist | *Inventory list*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to valid examples of items tracked in a CMDB? (Select 2 answers)

*Server hardware* | Log data | Asset disposal records | *Installed applications* | User passwords

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The primary difference between a simple inventory list and a CMDB is that a CMDB contains the same raw asset data as an inventory list, but also tracks the dependencies and relationships between the assets.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In IT asset management, a physical label (typically a sticker, barcode, QR code, or RFID tag) affixed to a device is known as:

Service tag | Asset ID | Tracking label | *Asset tag*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below describes a unique alphanumeric string or number assigned to an asset within an inventory system or CMDB?

Product key | *Asset ID* | Serial number | Asset tag

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is attempting to locate an unassigned network switch in a storage room. The inventory list provides only a physical description and an internal asset ID. Which identifier on the device should the technician use to match the physical item to the documentation?

Device model number | Manufacturer serial number | Device MAC address | *Physical asset tag*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following terms is used to describe a structured process organizations follow to acquire goods, services, or equipment from external suppliers?

Asset management process | Resource scheduling framework | *Procurement life cycle* | Inventory management plan

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician reviews an asset record before submitting a hardware repair request. Which detail confirms whether the vendor will provide free replacement parts?

Maintenance window schedule | Vendor support escalation path | Asset procurement date | *Warranty coverage status*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which asset record detail helps verify software compliance during an audit?

Assigned user information | Software usage logs | Asset procurement date | *License entitlement count*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is reviewing CMDB entries after a department reorganization. Several laptops were redistributed, and support tickets are now being misrouted. Which asset field should be updated to fix this issue?

Asset tag | Last login timestamp | Device physical location | *Assigned user*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician documents a malware infection that caused a system outage. Which document should be completed to formally record what occurred?

Forensic analysis summary | Vulnerability assessment report | *Incident report* | Malware remediation worksheet

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below refers to a documented set of step-by-step instructions designed to ensure consistent execution of routine tasks?

AUP | SOW | TOS | *SOP*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A new user/onboarding setup checklist is a standardized document used by IT departments to ensure all required steps, such as account creation and device preparation, are completed when provisioning a new employee. A user off-boarding checklist is a standardized document used to ensure the reversal of this process.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following terms refers to a formal agreement that sets out specific, measurable performance requirements for a service provider or vendor?

MSA | *SLA* | MOU | SOW

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of centralized repository of documented solutions, procedures, troubleshooting steps, and technical information used by support teams to resolve issues is commonly referred to as:

Maintenance log | Configuration baseline | Troubleshooting playbook | *Knowledge base*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a documented procedure that reverses a change and restores the system to its previous known-good configuration if the change fails?

*Rollback plan* | System restore point | Failover procedure | Backup plan

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A documented process for creating and storing copies of data so that the data can be restored if it becomes lost, corrupted, or damaged is known as:

*Backup plan* | Data retention policy | Version control | Rollback plan

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following terms describes the practice of implementing and verifying a change in an isolated, non-production environment specifically designed to prevent any impact on live systems?

Containerization | User acceptance testing | Virtualization | *Sandbox testing*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] To ensure accountability, a documented business process must identify the specific staff members responsible for each stage of its execution.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to upgrade the firmware on all backbone switches in the data center. Which document must be submitted first to initiate the formal change management process?

Risk assessment report | *Change request form* | Firmware compatibility checklist | Implementation plan

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An administrator is requesting to replace an aging file server with a new high-performance storage array. In the change request, the administrator justifies the replacement by noting that the current server is out of warranty and experiencing frequent hardware timeouts. Which part of the change management process does this detail satisfy?

Change type | Identification of affected systems | *Purpose of the change* | Risk analysis

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An IT team is migrating a local file share to a cloud-based storage provider. The request form lists the specific folders to be moved and identifies several archive folders that will remain on-premises. What part of the change management process is being detailed?

*Scope of the change* | Purpose of the change | Change type | Implementation plan

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is performing a monthly update of antivirus definitions on all corporate workstations. This process is documented, low risk, and follows a pre-approved procedure. How should this request be classified within the formal change management process?

*Standard change* | Normal change | Routine change | Emergency change

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An organization plans to move its entire on-premises email system to a cloud-based provider. This process requires formal approval and risk assessment. According to change management procedures, which change type does this represent?

Standard change | *Normal change* | High-impact change | Emergency change

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A critical security vulnerability is discovered that allows unauthorized remote access to the primary file server. An immediate patch must be applied outside the regular maintenance window. Which formal change category should the technician select on the change request form?

Standard change | Normal change | High-priority change | *Emergency change*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician’s request to perform a non-urgent database optimization is denied because the organization is currently performing a fiscal year-end audit. Which formal change management concept is being applied to this request?

Scheduled outage | Maintenance window | *Change freeze* | Operational hold

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An organization has a policy that all non-emergency software patches must be deployed on Tuesday nights between 11:00 PM and 3:00 AM. This type of authorized timeframe is officially classified as:

Controlled downtime | Scheduled outage | *Maintenance window* | Policy-driven delay

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An administrator is preparing a change request to update the firmware on a core network switch. The request includes a list of all VLANs and servers that will lose connectivity during the reboot. Which part of the change request form should contain this information?

Request justification | Implementation plan | *Affected systems/impact* | Scope of the change

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A proposed firmware update could cause temporary outages for several departments. The change request form includes a dedicated section for documenting the assessed likelihood of potential negative outcomes. Which section should record this information?

Impact analysis | Vulnerability assessment | Downtime estimate | *Risk level*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician submits a normal change request to upgrade the operating system on all production servers. Which element of the change management process ensures that the change is formally authorized?

Request justification | Managerial sign-off | Assignment of responsible staff members | *Change board approvals*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which scenario best represents the implementation phase of the change management process?

*Applying a configuration update to a server according to a documented procedure* | Reviewing the proposed technical steps with another administrator for quality assurance | Testing the change in a non-production environment before deployment | Validating that the update resolves the documented bug after the work is complete

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the change management lifecycle, formal peer review of a proposed change typically occurs:

During sandbox testing of the proposed change | After the change has failed in production | *Before the implementation phase* | After the change has been fully implemented

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements refer to a quick format? (Select 3 answers)

*Deletes file system references but does not erase actual data* | Checks the drive for bad sectors | *Suitable for quickly preparing a healthy drive for reuse or OS installation* | Erases all data, making it very difficult to recover | Suitable for preparing a drive for resale/disposal by securely erasing data | *Does not check the drive for bad sectors*

[MULTISELECT] What are the characteristics of a full format? (Select 3 answers)

Does not check the drive for bad sectors | Suitable for quickly preparing a healthy drive for reuse or OS installation | *Overwrites data, reducing chances of recovery* | *Checks the drive for bad sectors* | *Significantly slower than a quick format* | Deletes file system references but does not erase actual data

[MULTISELECT] What are the key considerations when planning an upgrade to a newer version of an operating system? (Select 3 answers)

Removing temporary files or uninstalling old apps before upgrading | *Ensuring that important user data and settings are backed up* | *Confirming that existing applications and drivers are compatible with the upgraded system* | Running disk cleanup or defragmentation before upgrade | *Verifying that the system hardware meets the requirements for the OS upgrade*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The product life cycle for an operating system is the period during which the manufacturer provides updates and support. For systems like Microsoft Windows, the official public release of the OS version starts the mainstream support phase, during which the OS receives full support, including regular feature and security updates. This phase typically lasts a set number of months and, in the case of Microsoft operating systems, is followed by extended support, which primarily includes security patches. Once an OS version reaches its end-of-life phase, it no longer receives updates or patches. An operating system at its end of life will continue to function, but it is highly vulnerable to new security threats and is not recommended for use in any environment, especially one connected to the internet.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below apply to Windows domains? (Select 3 answers)

Each computer on a Windows domain is governed by its own security policy | *Logging into any computer on a Windows domain requires a single set of credentials* | Windows domains are based on P2P networking architecture | *Security policies and permissions on a Windows domain are administered centrally* | All members of a Windows domain must be on the same local network or subnet | *Windows domains are based on client-server networking architecture*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers apply to Windows workgroups? (Select 3 answers)

Security policies and permissions in workgroups are administered centrally | Logging into any computer on a workgroup requires a single account (single sign-on feature) | *Workgroups are typically recommended for small networks of fewer than twenty computers* | There is no limit on the number of hosts that can become a part of a single workgroup | *Logging into any computer in a workgroup requires an account on that computer* | *Each computer in a workgroup has its own security policy*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below are true? (Select 3 answers)

Windows-based computers on home networks must be part of a HomeGroup | *Windows-based computers on a network must be part of a workgroup or a domain* | *Windows-based computers on workplace networks are usually part of a domain* | Windows-based computers on workplace networks are usually part of a workgroup | *Windows-based computers on home networks are usually part of a workgroup* | Windows-based computers on home networks are usually part of a domain

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following tools, available in the premium editions of Microsoft Windows, enables administrative control of desktop and user interface settings for all users on a device?

Control Panel | System Configuration | *Group Policy Editor* | Registry Editor

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Microsoft-proprietary protocol enables remote access and administration of another networked host through a graphical user interface?

VDI | *RDP* | SSH | VNC

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Most client editions of 32-bit Microsoft Windows are limited to 4 GB of usable RAM, regardless of the version or edition.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the name of a Microsoft Windows feature that enables encryption of entire drives?

FileVault | DriveCrypt | *BitLocker* | TrueCrypt

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Microsoft Windows MMC snap-in that allows local administrators to manage system and user configuration policies is called:

*gpedit.msc* | compmgmt.msc | gpmc.msc | lusrmgr.msc

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an embedded microcontroller used for secure boot, disk encryption, and system integrity verification?

*TPM* | SoC | UEFI | HSM

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following answers refers to a system firmware standard that replaces traditional BIOS and is required for installing and running newer Windows editions?

*UEFI* | GPT | ACPI | TPM

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Windows 10 and Windows 11 N editions are special regional versions of Microsoft Windows designed for the European market. They are identical to their standard counterparts in terms of core functionality but exclude certain preinstalled multimedia features. The ""N"" designation refers specifically to the absence of Windows Media Player and related multimedia components in these editions."

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The Home editions for Windows 10 and Windows 11 support participation in workgroups, but do not support joining Active Directory domains.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Premium editions of Microsoft Windows 10 and 11 allow IT administrators to customize, restrict, or lock down specific user interface elements, such as disabling access to certain settings, hiding specific Start Menu items, or enforcing standardized desktop backgrounds. This is in contrast to Windows 10 and 11 Home editions, which offer only basic personalization features in that respect.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which edition of Windows 10 and Windows 11 by default cannot function as an RDP host (i.e., allow incoming remote desktop connections)?

*Home* | Pro | Pro for Workstations | Enterprise

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] All editions of Windows 10 and Windows 11, including their respective N versions, come with the preinstalled RDP client software.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the 32-bit editions of Windows 10 has a physical memory limit of 4 GB?

Home | Pro | Pro for Workstations | Enterprise | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which 64-bit editions of Windows 10 and Windows 11 have a maximum RAM limit of 128 GB?

*Home* | Pro | Pro for Workstations | Enterprise

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the maximum physical memory supported by the 64-bit Pro editions of Windows 10 and Windows 11?

*2 TB* | 4 TB | 6 TB | 8 TB

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to the physical memory limit for Windows 10 Pro for Workstations?

2 TB | 4 TB | *6 TB* | 8 TB

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the maximum physical memory supported by the 64-bit Enterprise editions of Windows 10 and Windows 11?

2 TB | 4 TB | *6 TB* | 8 TB

[MULTISELECT] Which edition(s) of Microsoft Windows 10 include(s) the BitLocker Drive Encryption feature? (Select all that apply)

Home | *Pro* | *Pro for Workstations* | *Enterprise*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In a standard change management workflow, end-user acceptance typically takes place:

During the impact analysis phase, before any changes are applied to systems | *In a test environment before full production deployment* | During the implementation phase, while the change is being applied | After the change is implemented, once all systems are live in production

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A system admin performs a backup that copies every file on a workstation each night, even if no files were modified. Which backup type is being used?

Differential backup | *Full backup* | Incremental backup | Synthetic full backup

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A workstation backup strategy uses a full backup on Sunday and small daily backups that capture only the files changed since the last backup. What type of backup is being performed?

File-level backup | Differential backup | Snapshot backup | *Incremental backup*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which backup type copies all data changed since the last full backup?

Synthetic full backup | Incremental backup | Snapshot backup | *Differential backup*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A backup strategy uses a weekly full backup and daily incrementals, then creates a new full backup copy by combining existing backup data instead of pulling data from the workstation. What type of backup is generated?

Replication backup | *Synthetic full backup* | Offsite backup | Differential backup

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is configuring a backup schedule. The goal is to ensure that daily backups include only files modified since the previous day and that the backup process marks those files as backed up. Which backup type should be used?

Differential backup | Full backup | *Incremental backup* | Synthetic full backup

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In a differential backup strategy, restoring data from backup requires a working copy of the last full backup and the most recent copy of the differential backup.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A workstation uses a full backup on Sunday at 11:00 PM and an incremental nightly backup schedule at 11:00 PM on weekdays. The system fails on Friday at 9:00 AM. How many backup sets must be restored to fully recover the system?

2 | 3 | 4 | *5*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician restores a user’s documents directly back into the original Documents folder, replacing the corrupted files. What type of recovery is being performed?

Selective recovery | Local recovery | *In-place/overwrite recovery* | Folder-level recovery

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A backup copy of data is being restored to a temporary folder on a secondary drive to compare versions of files before replacing anything. What recovery method is being used?

Bare-metal recovery | In-place recovery | *Alternative-location recovery* | Duplicative recovery

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A scheduled restore test is performed each month to ensure that the backed-up data has not been altered or corrupted. The purpose of this activity is to verify the backup's:

Availability | Scope | Reliability | *Integrity*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company's backup policy states that restore tests must be performed once per week to verify that mission-critical data remains recoverable. This requirement defines the company's:

Backup scheduling window | Backup retention period | Backup rotation scheme | *Backup testing frequency*

[MULTISELECT] The advantages of on-site backups over off-site backups include: (Select 3 answers)

*Faster data access and restore speeds* | *Greater control over backup media & backup process* | *Lower or no ongoing subscription fees* | Improved physical and environmental security | Geographic redundancy | Scalability without additional hardware investment

[MULTISELECT] What are the advantages of off-site backups in comparison to on-site backups? (Select 3 answers)

Greater control over backup media & backup process | *Improved physical and environmental security* | Faster data access and restore speeds | *Geographic redundancy* | Lower or no ongoing subscription fees | *Scalability without additional on-premises hardware investment*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A company utilizes a backup rotation scheme where backups performed daily during a week are used to create a weekly backup and backups created at the end of each week are used to create a monthly backup. What type of backup rotation scheme is being used?

Synthetic full backup | Tower of Hanoi | 3-2-1 | *Grandfather-Father-Son*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below can be used to describe the 3-2-1 backup strategy? (Select 3 answers)

*Keep at least 1 backup copy offsite* | Save backups to 3 different storage media types | Keep at least 1 backup copy onsite | *Maintain 3 total copies of data (original + 2 backups)* | *Use at least 2 different storage media types* | Keep all 3 backup copies offsite | Create 2 copies of the primary backup copy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which action violates proper ESD strap usage?

Ensuring the strap makes skin contact | Connecting the strap to a grounded metal object | Wearing the strap on the wrist | *Leaving the strap disconnected while working*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following statements is not true?

An ESD mat must be connected to an unpainted, grounded metal surface to operate correctly | An ESD mat is designed to be used in conjunction with a grounded ESD wrist strap | *An ESD mat alone provides complete protection against electrostatic discharge* | An ESD mat requires a physical connection to a verified ground to function as intended

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An ESD mat is connected to a metal computer chassis, but the chassis is sitting on a wooden table and is not plugged into a wall outlet. Which of the statements listed below is true?

The mat is now a high-voltage hazard | The mat will still dissipate all static to the floor | *The mat and chassis are at the same potential, but neither is grounded* | The wooden table acts as a ground for the mat

[MULTISELECT] Which devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage? (Select all that apply)

*CRTs* | *PSUs* | *Inverters* | GPUs | *Laser printers*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of electrical grounding in a workstation?

Balances the electrical potential between the user and the internal components | Prevents voltage fluctuations from affecting internal workstation components | *Provides a low-resistance path to earth for stray current to protect the user from shock* | Prevents high-voltage spikes from damaging the power supply during a lightning strike

[MULTISELECT] Which best practices help protect internal PC components from physical damage during handling or storage? (Select 3 answers)

*Holding components by their edges* | *Placing components in antistatic bags for temporary storage* | *Storing components in a dry, temperature-controlled environment for long-term storage* | Keeping components in sealed plastic bags to prevent moisture | Wearing cotton gloves to improve grip on components

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the actions listed below does not align with cable-management best practices?

Securing external cables within wall-mounted raceways in an office environment | Routing cables away from fans and vents inside a desktop PC case | Providing additional slack at cable ends to reduce strain on connectors | *Bundling power and data cables together for easier installation through wall conduits* | Using cable ties (e.g., Velcro straps) to bundle cables loosely | Labeling networking cables at both ends for easy identification during maintenance

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following items do not require antistatic bags for safe handling when not installed?

Motherboards | Expansion cards | *Power cables* | Memory modules

[MULTISELECT] Examples of devices/components regulated under special disposal procedures due to environmental/safety hazards include: (Select all that apply)

Heatsinks | *CRTs* | *Toner cartridges* | *Batteries*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is preparing to replace a faulty internal cooling fan inside a PC workstation. Which of the actions listed below is the most important first step to ensure personal safety?

Switch off the surge protector connected to the PC | Press and hold the power button for several seconds | Turn off the power supply switch on the back of the PC | *Disconnect the power cable from the wall outlet*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following actions is considered an incorrect lifting technique according to workplace safety guidelines?

Lifting with the legs, not the back | Performing a team lift for heavy objects | *Locking the knees while lifting* | Keeping the load close to the body

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician encounters a small electrical fire inside a desktop PC. Which action is unsafe?

Disconnecting the PC from power | Using a Class C extinguisher | Evacuating if the fire spreads | *Using water to extinguish the fire*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of fire extinguishing agent poses the greatest safety risk to humans due to the rapid displacement of oxygen?

Water-based foam | Clean agent gas | Dry powder chemical | *Carbon dioxide*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary reason clean agent fire suppression systems are preferred over traditional sprinkler systems in modern IT environments?

They lower the air pressure to prevent combustion | They reduce the cost of fire suppression system maintenance | They are easier to install than traditional sprinkler systems | *They do not damage sensitive electronic hardware*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Safety goggles reduce the risk of eye injury during tasks that involve:

Handling damaged or swollen batteries | Cutting or trimming cables | Using pressurized air | Grinding, cutting, or drilling metal parts | Soldering or desoldering components | *All of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] While servicing a laser printer a technician notices spilled toner inside the chassis. Which piece of safety equipment is most important to wear before beginning the cleanup?

Safety goggles | Latex gloves | ESD wrist strap | *Air filter mask*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Removing jewelry, such as rings or watches, is a recommended personal safety practice when working inside a computer case.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a standardized document outlining the hazards, safe handling procedures, storage requirements, and proper disposal methods for potentially hazardous materials?

EPA | OSHA | SOP | *MSDS*

[MULTISELECT] A technician is decommissioning a variety of older hardware components. Which of the following items should not be placed in standard electronic waste due to special handling requirements? (Select all that apply)

Optical media drives | *CRT display units* | *Laser printer toner cartridges* | USB flash drives | *Lithium-ion battery packs*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below refers to an environmental control system?

SCADA | DCS | TEMPEST | *HVAC*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that a high-performance workstation's speed drops significantly during the afternoon when the office's ambient temperature rises. What is the most likely cause of this performance decrease?

System fan failure | Thermal paste degradation | Drop in voltage from the power utility | *Thermal throttling*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A server room is experiencing an unusually high number of component failures due to ESD. Which environmental condition is the most likely cause?

Humidity levels that are too high | Ambient temperature that is too low | *Humidity levels that are too low* | Ambient temperature that is too high

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A data center hardware audit reveals recurring corrosion and oxidation on metal connectors used in network and server equipment. Which environmental condition would most likely explain this issue?

Humidity levels that are too low | Ambient temperature that is too high | *Humidity levels that are too high* | Ambient temperature that is too low

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is not considered a best-practice guideline for proper equipment placement to ensure adequate temperature and ventilation?

Maintain clear airflow around intake and exhaust vents | Avoid placing equipment near heat-generating sources | *Ensure all exhaust fans are pushing air into the cold aisle* | Position equipment in a climate-controlled environment | Ensure adequate clearance around all sides of the device

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the primary risk associated with excessive dust accumulation inside a workstation's chassis?

Power supply voltage fluctuations | Increased electromagnetic interference | Reduced Wi-Fi signal strength | *Thermal buildup due to insulation*

[MULTISELECT] Which precautions should be followed to avoid moisture-related damage when using compressed air to clean computer hardware? (Select 3 answers)

*Avoid shaking the can during use* | *Keep the can upright* | Apply long, continuous sprays to ensure all dust is dislodged | *Use short, controlled bursts* | Shake the can frequently during use to maintain high pressure | Keep the can tilted to prevent liquid leakage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is cleaning a laser printer and notices toner dust mixed with regular dust inside the device. What is the safest course of action?

Shake the toner cartridge to loosen debris | Use a wet cloth to wipe the toner | Blow the toner out with compressed air | *Use an ESD-safe vacuum designed for toner*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The term ""Brownout"" refers to what kind of situation?"

Power fluctuation | Power sag | *Prolonged undervoltage* | Power outage

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What does the term ""Blackout"" refer to?"

Intermittent power loss | Drop in voltage | Power sag | *Complete loss of power*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below best describes the primary function of a UPS?

Filters electrical noise from the power line | Ensures consistent voltage delivery to hardware | *Provides battery-backed power during an outage* | Regulates incoming voltage to a stable level

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is setting up a new workstation in an area prone to frequent lightning storms. Which device should be installed to protect the computer's power supply from sudden, high-voltage spikes?

Line conditioner | Standby power supply | Power strip | *Surge suppressor*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of maintaining a chain of custody?

To provide a step-by-step log of the incident remediation process | To track the movement of corporate assets for inventory management purposes | To track which systems were affected during an incident | *To preserve the integrity of evidence for potential legal proceedings*

[MULTISELECT] Which items must always be included when documenting a chain of custody? (Select 2 answers)

Description of the location where the evidence was found | Method used to collect the evidence | *Chronological log of everyone who handled the evidence* | *Date and time of evidence transfer* | List of remediation steps taken after evidence collection

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician discovers evidence of credit card data theft on a company server. What is the most appropriate next step?

Shut down the server to preserve its current state | Contact local law enforcement directly | Disconnect the server from the network to prevent further access | *Notify management and follow escalation procedures*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the terms listed below is used to describe a forensic copy of a storage device that captures every sector of the drive, including deleted files, hidden partitions, and unallocated space?

Disk mirroring | File system dump | *Bit-by-bit image* | Snapshot image

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During an incident investigation, a technician must acquire data from a suspect’s storage drive without altering any information. Which of the following ensures the contents of the drive cannot be modified during this process?

Disk encryption | Password-protected access | Checksum verification | *Write blocker*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to confirm that a forensic image has not been altered since its creation. Which method provides this assurance?

Running a disk integrity check | Checking the system event logs | Examining the evidence transfer records | *Comparing hash values*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] When documenting a security incident, which type of detail should be strictly avoided to maintain the integrity of the report?

Timeline of events | Actions taken during remediation | Personnel involved in the incident | Collected evidence | *Speculative statements*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below shows the basic order of volatility for a typical system?

Archival media, Disk, RAM, CPU registers/cache | RAM, CPU registers/cache, Disk, Archival media | Disk, Archival media, CPU registers/cache, RAM | *CPU registers/cache, RAM, Disk, Archival media*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which action best ensures compliance with software licensing requirements?

Monitoring application launch frequency | Purchasing a perpetual license for every device | *Tracking license keys and installations* | Enforcing DRM restrictions across all devices

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The primary purpose of DRM is to:

Specify the number of permitted software installations | Define legal rights and obligations for software use | Monitor software installation activity for license compliance | *Enforce access and usage restrictions on digital content*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is tasked with reviewing the permissions for a new software suite. The company needs to know the specific restrictions regarding the redistribution of the software and the consequences of exceeding the allowed installation count. Which document contains this information?

SLA | *EULA* | ToS | AUP

[MULTISELECT] An IT asset manager is performing a department-wide software audit to ensure that all applications have valid licenses. Which of the following elements must be verified to confirm full licensing compliance? (Select all that apply)

*Permitted seat count or installation limit* | *Legal entitlement or proof of purchase* | *Authorized usage scope based on license type* | Event log entries related to application usage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which statement best defines a perpetual license agreement?

Grants the user ownership of the software source code | Provides unlimited installations across all devices | *Allows indefinite software use after a one-time purchase* | Requires regular renewal payments for continued access

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician finds that an employee installed a personal-use licensed application for business tasks on a company-owned workstation. This indicates that the software is:

Exempt from licensing rules | *Not licensed for business use* | Automatically covered by corporate licensing | Open source and unrestricted

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below accurately describe the characteristics of a personal-use software license? (Select 3 answers)

*Grants usage rights without transferring legal ownership* | *Prohibits the redistribution or resale of the software* | Allows the end user to modify the software | Transfers full legal ownership of the software to the end user | *Restricts the software usage to non-commercial purposes*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is tasked with setting up a shared computer in a retail environment. The computer will be used by various employees to process customer orders and manage inventory. Which of the following license types must be assigned to the software to ensure the business remains compliant with legal usage rights?

Shareware license | *Corporate-use license* | Perpetual license | Concurrent license

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of software licensing model grants free access to the application code as well as permission to modify and redistribute the application?

Perpetual license | Freeware license | *Open-source license* | Shareware license

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a legal contract that restricts a party from disclosing confidential or proprietary information?

SLA | *NDA* | ISA | BPA

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of legal agreement involves a mutual obligation between parties to protect shared confidential information from unauthorized disclosure?

GDPR | MSA | ToS | *MNDA*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The purpose of PCI DSS is to provide protection for:

Personal health information | Bank account credentials | Intellectual property and trade secrets | *Credit cardholder data*

[MULTISELECT] Examples of government-issued identifiers include: (Select all that apply)

*Driver’s license number* | *Passport number* | Medical record number | *Taxpayer identification number* | *Social security number*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following acronyms refers to any type of information pertaining to an individual that can be used to uniquely identify that person?

PHI | UID | *PII* | SSN

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The US Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides privacy protection for: (Select best answer)

PFI | PII | CUI | *PHI*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of policy defines the required timeframe for the preservation of regulated data prior to its permanent disposal?

Data protection policy | Data classification policy | Data backup policy | *Data retention policy*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A type of document stipulating rules of behavior to be followed by users of computers, networks, and associated resources is known as:

ToS | EULA | *AUP* | SLA

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is configuring a captive portal for a guest wireless network. To ensure compliance, guests must agree to the company's terms of service on a special page before accessing the internet. Which feature should be deployed?

Post-login warning banner | Desktop pop-up alert | *Splash screen* | Browser pop-up message

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which description best defines appropriate attire in a professional IT environment?

Casual clothing with minimal branding | Clothing that prioritizes comfort | *Clothing that adheres to company dress code* | Clothing suitable for physical labor

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which approach best demonstrates effective communication with a customer in a technical support scenario?

Describe the issue with precise, technical terms to avoid any ambiguity | Use technical abbreviations to streamline the communication process | *Avoid using jargon, acronyms, and slang when applicable* | Describe the issue using informal language to simplify the explanation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is troubleshooting a recurring software issue while the user expresses frustration. Which behavior best demonstrates maintaining a positive attitude?

Focusing exclusively on resolving the issue without engaging the user | Promising a definitive fix time regardless of the actual troubleshooting progress | Informing the user that similar issues are common and unavoidable | *Acknowledging the user’s frustration while remaining calm and respectful*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the statements listed below best describes projecting confidence in a customer support role?

Reassuring the customer by minimizing the perceived complexity of the issue | Providing a definitive repair timeline before completing a full diagnostic | *Communicating assurance and competence while managing expectations* | Minimizing the customer’s questions to maintain control of the interaction

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A customer begins describing a printing issue in detail. Which action best demonstrates active listening according to professional support standards?

Interrupting to confirm understanding of something stated earlier in the description | Politely cutting in to redirect a lengthy or off-topic story back to the main technical issue | *Listening without interrupting until the customer finishes describing the problem* | Correcting the customer's technical terminology or phrasing during their explanation

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which behavior best reflects the guideline to use appropriate professional titles and designations?

Relying on generic respectful terms when unsure about the provided title | Applying titles or designations only when explicitly requested to do so | Omitting titles entirely to focus attention on the technical problem | *Addressing a self-identified PhD holder as Dr. followed by the last name*

[MULTISELECT] Which actions best demonstrate proper time management in customer support interactions? (Select 2 answers)

Relying on the customer to reschedule if a delay occurs | *Planning travel and preparation to avoid delays* | Offering extra service time to compensate for late arrival | *Contacting the customer promptly if running late* | Depending on customer understanding of common overruns

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following activities are considered unprofessional distractions that should be avoided in a customer support scenario? (Select 3 answers)

Photographing damaged equipment | *Texting or using social media sites* | Answering a supervisor's call | *Engaging in personal conversations with co-workers* | *Taking personal calls*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which practice most directly supports the guideline to not argue with the customer or be defensive?

Asking the customer to remain calm before continuing | Redirecting the discussion to a different topic | Escalating the issue immediately to avoid conflict | *Avoiding counterarguments when facing complaints*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the actions listed below align with the guideline to avoid dismissing customer issues? (Select 3 answers)

*Treating every reported symptom as legitimate until investigated* | *Restating the customer's concern to confirm understanding* | *Asking open-ended questions to better understand the complaint* | Clarifying customer statements by interrupting them if necessary | Pointing out that the problem is common among other customers

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following actions align with avoiding being judgmental in a technical support scenario? (Select 3 answers)

Reassuring the customer that the mistake is understandable for non-technical users | *Asking open-ended questions to better understand the complaint* | *Treating the customer's technical knowledge level without assumption or criticism* | *Focusing on facts and solutions rather than the customer's past decisions* | Advising the customer to stop experimenting with settings they don't understand

[MULTISELECT] In a customer support scenario, which actions best demonstrate the ability to clarify customer statements? (Select 3 answers)

*Restating the customer's description to verify understanding* | Aligning communication style with the customer's technical level | Correcting the customer's use of non-technical language | *Questioning to confirm key details of the reported problem* | *Asking open-ended questions to narrow the scope of the issue*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the practices listed below do not align with the guideline on maintaining discretion when discussing past customer encounters? (Select 2 answers)

Focusing on technical details when describing issues | *Discussing specific customer experiences outside work* | Avoiding specific customer names or locations | *Posting details of a customer interaction on a personal social media account* | Using anonymized examples in training or meetings

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After diagnosing a failed motherboard on a laptop that is out of warranty, a technician determines the repair cost is nearly equal to a new system. Which of the following is the most professional course of action?

Present both options but emphasize repair as better value | Quote only the repair cost without mentioning replacement price | Recommend replacing the laptop with a new system | *Offer both repair and replacement options to the customer*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After finishing a repair and verifying full system functionality, what is the most important final step to complete the service workflow?

*Providing the customer with proper documentation of the services performed* | Asking the customer to sign a waiver stating that no other components were damaged | Identifying potential negative impacts of the implemented solution | Updating internal documentation with the hardware manufacturer's information

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] After resolving a customer issue, following up at a later date to verify satisfaction is optional unless the customer reports a new problem.

True | *False*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below describes appropriate handling of the customer's confidential data in a situation where troubleshooting requires access to a password-protected system?

Create a temporary account with the same permissions | *Ask user to type in the password themselves* | Temporarily disable password protection | Ask user for password and their consent to use it

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of file extension would be found on a script file that runs a sequence of DOS commands in Windows Command Prompt?

*.bat* | .ps1 | .sh | .vbs

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which file extension is used for scripts executed by the PowerShell interpreter on Windows systems?

.vbs | .py | .bat | *.ps1*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which scripting language is associated with the .vbs file extension?

JavaScript | Python | *Visual Basic Scripting Edition* | PowerShell

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to create a logon script that displays a graphical (popup) welcome message for domain users on legacy Windows workstations. Which type of script file should be used?

.cmd | .bat | .sh | *.vbs*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following is the standard file extension for shell scripts executed on Unix-like systems such as Linux and macOS?

.py | .js | .bat | *.sh*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which type of script file is used to control interactive elements on webpages in modern browsers?

.css | .php | *.js* | .vbs

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a filename extension associated with a cross-platform, general-purpose programming language?

.vbs | *.py* | .ps1 | .bat

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows technician is tasked with ensuring that temporary files and folders are deleted from all workstations on a specific time-based schedule. What should the technician do to provide basic automation for this task?

Modify a registry key to automatically purge temporary data | Configure Group Policy to delete temporary data at user logoff | *Implement a script to run the deletion task on schedule* | Use Disk Cleanup's built-in settings to remove temporary data

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which file extension is used for scripts that are the current industry standard for automating administrative tasks, such as system restarts, in a modern Windows environment?

.bat | .vbs | .cmd | *.ps1*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to ensure that all employees in the Finance department have a specific shared folder mapped to the Z: drive every time they log into their Windows workstations. Which of the following options allows the technician to achieve this goal?

Write a startup script that maps the drive at system boot | Configure a script that uses a net share command | Use a shutdown script to remap the drive before the system powers off | *Create a login script that runs a net use command*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which edition of Windows 11 does not include the built-in BitLocker encryption feature?

*Home* | Pro | Pro for Workstations | Enterprise

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which edition of Windows 10 does not include the gpedit.msc administrative tool?

*Home* | Pro | Pro for Workstations | Enterprise

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Windows 11 Home, Pro, and Enterprise editions include the Group Policy Editor component by default.

True | *False*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following are minimum requirements for installing Windows 11? (Select 3 answers)

*UEFI firmware with Secure Boot* | *TPM version 2.0 support* | *64-bit processor listed on Microsoft’s Windows 11 compatibility list* | At least 2 GB of system memory | A minimum of 32 GB of available storage space

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the function of Task Manager (taskmgr.exe) in Windows 10 and Windows 11? (Select all that apply)

*Displays information on programs, processes, and services that are currently running on the computer* | Provides access to administrative tools for managing network traffic | Allows users to schedule the launch of programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals | *Provides access to startup applications that can be enabled or disabled to launch automatically at sign-in* | Allows system administrators to modify user account permissions for currently logged-in users | *Provides real-time reports on how a Windows-based computer is using system resources, such as CPU, RAM, Disk, Network, and GPU* | *Allows users to close a non-responsive application in Windows*

[MULTISELECT] Windows Task Manager can be launched by: (Select all that apply)

*Using the Ctrl+Shift+Esc key combination* | Double-clicking on the applet's icon shortcut in the Administrative Tools folder | *Pressing Ctrl+Alt+Delete and selecting the Task Manager option from the menu screen* | Selecting the Task Manager applet in Windows Control Panel | *Right-clicking on the Windows Taskbar and selecting Task Manager* | *Typing taskmgr (or taskmgr.exe) in the Command Prompt (cmd.exe) and pressing Enter* | *Pressing the Windows key + R, typing taskmgr (or taskmgr.exe) in the Run window, and pressing Enter* | *Right-clicking on the Windows Start button and selecting Task Manager*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tab of the Windows Task Manager provides an interface to manually start, stop, or restart system applications that typically run without a user interface?

Processes | Performance | Startup | Users | *Services*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Task Manager tab in Windows allows users to enable or disable apps that run automatically at sign-in?

Services | *Startup* | Performance | Processes | Users

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tab in Windows Task Manager displays real-time graphs of CPU, memory, disk, network, and GPU resource usage?

Services | Startup | *Performance* | Processes | Users | None of the above

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Task Manager tab in Windows provides real-time information about system resources used by running applications and background processes?

*Processes* | Performance | Startup | Users | Services

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The Task Manager's Users tab in Windows lists all signed-in user accounts along with details on applications and system resources used by each account. This tab also allows system administrators to close user applications, disconnect the user (lock the user session), or sign them off (force the user to log off).

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A customizable framework providing access to a collection of system utilities (called snap-ins) designed to manage networks, computers, services, and other system components in Microsoft Windows is known as:

PowerShell | *MMC* | Administrative Tools | .NET

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc) is a Windows administrative utility for monitoring system health and troubleshooting problems with applications, the OS, and hardware. Event Viewer allows browsing and managing event logs, of which the most common include Application, System, and Security logs. Application and System logs categorize events into Information, Warning, and Error types. Information events indicate normal system operations (such as service startups and successful completion of routine tasks), Warning events highlight non-critical issues (for example, low disk space or driver compatibility warnings), and Error events indicate serious problems (e.g., application failures or unexpected service interruptions). Security logs record audit events that report the success or failure of security-related actions.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following commands in Windows launches the standalone graphical utility used specifically for managing storage devices?

devmgmt.msc | diskpart.exe | compmgmt.msc | *diskmgmt.msc*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows administrative tool used to schedule the launch of programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals?

taskmgr.exe | resmon.exe | *taskschd.msc* | perfmon.msc

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Microsoft Windows OS feature allows users to view and manage installed hardware and device drivers?

msconfig.exe | *devmgmt.msc* | appwiz.cpl | compmgmt.msc

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows snap-in used to view, export, import, and delete digital certificates for the current user is called:

lusrmgr.msc | secpol.msc | msconfig.exe | *certmgr.msc*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Microsoft Windows, Local Users and Groups (lusrmgr.msc) is an MMC snap-in for adding or removing users and managing group membership for users who have specific rights and permissions on a Windows system. The Local Users and Groups utility is not included in Home editions of Windows 10 and Windows 11.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following administrative tools in MS Windows is used to monitor (both in real time and through logged data) how running programs affect a computer’s performance?

resmon.exe | compmgmt.msc | *perfmon.exe* | taskmgr.exe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the tools listed below allows administrators to configure policies that control system and user settings on a Windows computer?

msconfig.exe | *gpedit.msc* | lusrmgr.msc | compmgmt.msc

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Microsoft Windows application utility used for displaying details about a computer’s hardware resources, components, and software environment is known as:

msconfig.exe | winver.exe | *msinfo32.exe* | control.exe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which administrative tool in MS Windows provides detailed graphs of hardware activity (CPU, Memory, Disk, and Network) along with real-time, per-process breakdowns of system resource usage?

*resmon.exe* | compmgmt.msc | perfmon.exe | eventvwr.msc

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following refers to a Microsoft Windows tool designed for troubleshooting system startup problems?

eventvwr.msc | sysdm.cpl | compmgmt.msc | *msconfig.exe*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tab of the System Configuration utility in MS Windows includes the option for normal, diagnostic, and selective system startup modes?

*General* | Boot | Services | Startup | Tools

[MULTISELECT] Which of the settings listed below can be managed through the Boot tab of the System Configuration utility in Windows? (Select all that apply)

*Safe boot, including an option to load minimal drivers and services for troubleshooting during system startup* | *Boot logging, which collects detailed information about the startup process for diagnostic purposes* | *Selecting the default operating system to load in a multiboot environment* | *Limits on hardware resources, such as maximum RAM, allocated to the selected OS in a multiboot environment* | Startup items, including programs and services set to launch automatically during system boot

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the Microsoft Windows utilities helps recover storage space by deleting unnecessary files and temporary data?

*cleanmgr.exe* | dfrgui.exe | compmgmt.msc | diskmgmt.msc

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following tools can be used to optimize drive performance in Windows?

diskmgmt.msc | cleanmgr.exe | *dfrgui.exe* | compmgmt.msc

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the system utilities in Windows provides access to a hierarchical database that stores low-level system configuration data?

msconfig.exe | sysdm.cpl | *regedit.exe* | msinfo32.exe

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to Windows command-line command used for directory traversal?

pwd | dir | *cd* | path

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following Windows command-line commands can be used to list all files and subdirectories in the current directory?

dir /all | *dir* | dir /list | dir /?

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that can be used to display TCP/IP configuration settings?

ifconfig | nslookup | *ipconfig* | netstat

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote network host is called:

*ping* | tracert | dig | netstat

[MULTISELECT] The netstat command-line utility is used for: (Select 2 answers)

*Displaying active TCP/IP connections* | Testing the reachability of a remote host | Displaying intermediary points on the packet route | Viewing the TCP/IP configuration details | *Displaying network protocol statistics*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the network command-line tools listed below resolves a domain name to an IP address?

netstat | *nslookup* | tracert | pathping

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the Windows command-line commands is used to manage connections to network resources?

net map | net share | *net use* | net mount

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A network command-line utility in Windows that tracks and displays the route taken by IP packets on their way to another host is known as:

ping | traceroute | nslookup | *tracert*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which network command-line utility in Windows combines the features of ping and traceroute?

*pathping* | netcfg | dig | rpcping

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following command-line utilities in Windows is used to verify file system integrity and fix logical file system errors?

grep | *chkdsk* | sfc | dism

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command-line tool in Windows initializes a drive by setting it up with a structure that supports file storage?

gpart | sfdisk | mount | *format*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the commands in Windows launches a text-based, command-line partitioning utility?

sfdisk | diskutil | gpart | *diskpart*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows command-line command used to create a directory or subdirectory?

*md* | mkd | mdir | mkdr

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following command-line commands in Windows can be used to delete a directory?

del | *rmdir* | dir /d | popd

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which copying utility accessible via Windows command line interface offers the widest range of options?

xcopy | move | *robocopy* | copy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command-line command in Windows displays the name of the current computer a user is connected to?

host | hosts | *hostname* | localhost

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the Windows command-line commands, when run on a Windows computer without additional parameters, lists all local user accounts configured on that specific computer?

net view | net session | *net user* | net accounts

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the command-line commands in Windows launches a pop-up window containing a brief summary of the installed operating system?

*winver* | msinfo32 | systeminfo | msconfig

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command-line utility provides information about the currently logged-on Windows user?

hostname | *whoami* | id | logname

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the standard syntax in Windows command line for displaying help or usage information related to a specific utility?

[command name] info | [command name] man | *[command name] /?* | [command name] help

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows command-line utility that refreshes Group Policy settings on a local computer without requiring a restart or logoff is called:

net user | *gpupdate* | bcdedit | gpresult

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a command-line tool in Windows that can be used to display current Group Policy settings for a user or computer?

*gpresult* | net view | verify | gpupdate

[MULTISELECT] The sfc command-line utility in Windows: (Select 2 answers)

Scans disk volumes for file system errors | Identifies and recovers readable data from bad sectors on a drive | Encrypts files to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data | *Replaces incorrect system file versions with correct Microsoft versions* | *Scans the integrity of all protected system files*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which command-line command in MS Windows moves the command-line prompt one folder up in the directory tree (sets the prompt at the parent folder of the current folder)?

cd \ | cd . | cd /^ | *cd ..*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following Windows command-line commands changes the current directory to the root directory?

cd /^ | cd .. | cd /r | *cd \*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows technician needs to locate all .exe files within a directory, including those in its subdirectories. Which command should they use?

dir *.exe /a:s | dir v *.exe | dir *.exe | *dir /s *.exe*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an ipconfig parameter used for displaying the full TCP/IP configuration information for all adapters?

-a | /? | */all* | /-a

[MULTISELECT] Which command-line commands in MS Windows are used to refresh the DHCP configuration for all network adapters? (Select 2 answers)

ipconfig /flush | ifconfig eth0 down | *ipconfig /release* | *ipconfig /renew* | ifconfig eth0 up | ipconfig /register

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports an inability to access any websites or network shares. As the first troubleshooting step, a technician needs to verify whether the TCP/IP stack on the local Windows machine is functioning correctly. Which ping command should they use for this initial test?

ping 8.8.8.8 | ping 192.168.1.1 | ping 1.1.1.1 | *ping 127.0.0.1*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which netstat parameter is used to display all active TCP/UDP connections and listening ports?

*-a* | -p | -e | -r

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The -b netstat parameter in Microsoft Windows allows users to view the name of the application associated with each active connection or listening port.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which parameter, when used with the netstat command, displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form?

-b | *-n* | -q | -r

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the command-line tools listed below can be used for troubleshooting DNS-related problems?

pathping | tracert | arp | *nslookup*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to map a network share located at \\SERVER\Data to the drive letter Z: on a user's computer. Which of the following commands should the technician use?

net share Z: \\SERVER\Data | *net use Z: \\SERVER\Data* | map drive Z: \\SERVER\Data | net use \\SERVER\Data Z:

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The output of the Windows tracert command-line utility primarily displays a list of all intermediate routers (hops) that an IP packet traverses to reach a specified destination, along with the round-trip time (latency) to each of those hops. This information is useful for identifying network bottlenecks, diagnosing where delays or packet loss are occurring, and determining whether a routing issue is within the local network, the ISP, or further along the internet path.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] What are the most important functionalities provided by the pathping utility? (Select 2 answers)

Tests connectivity to a specific port | Displays network statistics | *Traces the path to the destination* | Sends broadcast messages over the network | *Measures latency and packet loss*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The /f switch of the chkdsk command-line utility in MS Windows instructs the utility to:

Scan the system for corrupted or missing system files | *Automatically repair detected file system errors on the disk* | Identify bad sectors on the disk and attempt to recover any readable data from them | Optimize disk usage by consolidating fragmented file data

[MULTISELECT] The chkdsk /r command in Windows: (Select 2 answers)

Compresses files on the disk to save space | *Attempts to recover any readable data from bad sectors* | Optimizes disk usage by consolidating fragmented file data | Scans for and repairs corrupted system files | *Identifies bad sectors on the disk*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician is preparing to reinstall Windows on a user’s PC. They want to quickly prepare the D: drive by removing all file system references to existing data without performing a thorough overwrite. Which variant of the format command in the Windows command-line interface should they use to achieve that goal?

format d: /p | format d: /f | *format d: /q* | format d: /d

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user is trying to clean and repartition a disk with the diskpart command-line utility in Windows, but encounters an “Access is denied” error. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The drive is offline and needs to be brought online first | The utility is trying to access a non-existent drive | The drive is currently in use by another application and is locked | *The utility was not launched with administrative privileges*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the difference between md and mkdir command-line commands in MS Windows?

The md command supports creating multiple directories at once, while mkdir does not | The mkdir command requires administrative privileges, while md does not | The md command is specific to older MS DOS versions, mkdir is for modern Windows | *There is no difference, as both commands provide the same functionality*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user wants to delete the entire directory named Data located at C:\Files\Data along with all its subdirectories and files using the Windows command-line. Which variant of the rmdir command should they run?

rmdir C:\Files /s | rmdir C:\Files /q | rmdir C:\Files /r | *None of the above*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows technician is setting up an automated nightly task to copy an entire folder tree, including all subdirectories and empty folders, from a network drive to a local backup location. The process must retry failed copies automatically. Which command-line utility should they use?

move | xcopy | *robocopy* | copy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user needs to copy a very large volume of files from one Windows host to another. The task must resume automatically if interrupted due to network issues. Which command-line tool is best suited for this task?

copy | *robocopy* | move | xcopy

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician suspects that a Windows user account named guest has been locked out or disabled due to multiple failed login attempts. The technician also needs to check when the account last logged in and whether it requires a password. Which of the following commands will provide this information?

net view guest | whoami /user | *net user guest* | net accounts guest

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A support technician is remotely connected to multiple Windows machines and needs to confirm the network identity of the computer they are currently operating on. Which command should they use to verify this?

*hostname* | winver | localhost | msconfig

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] An IT technician needs to confirm the Windows OS version and build number to verify its compatibility with an upcoming system patch. Which command-line command should they run?

msconfig | whoami | hostname | *winver*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows technician wants to view a comprehensive snapshot of the current user’s security context, including its privileges, group memberships, logon ID, and security identifiers. Which whoami parameter should they use?

/groups | /user | /logonid | */all*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the Windows command line environment, which common syntax can be used as an alternative to appending / ? after a command name to display help?

[command name] help | man [command name] | [command name] about | *help [command name]*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Used without any parameters, the help command in MS Windows displays a list of available system commands along with a brief description of each command.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the default behavior of the gpupdate command-line command in Windows if no parameters are specified?

It refreshes only computer policies | It does not refresh any policies | *It refreshes both user and computer policies* | It refreshes only user policies

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] During a routine audit, an IT technician needs a concise report of all Group Policy settings that have been applied to a specific host. Which gpresult parameter in Windows command line instructs the utility to provide this summary?

/s | /u | /p | */r*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which parameter of the sfc command in Windows command line enables a file check that scans integrity of all protected system files and attempts to repair corrupted files?

*/scannow* | /verify | /scanfile | /verifyfile

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The “View by: Category” option in the Microsoft Windows Control Panel displays the entire contents of the Control Panel in a single window, enabling quick access to each Control Panel applet.

True | *False*

[MULTISELECT] Which locations in Windows 10 and Windows 11 provide access to the Internet Properties system utility? (Select 3 answers)

*Internet Options applet in Windows Control Panel* | *Network and Sharing Center applet in Windows Control Panel* | Ease of Access applet in Windows Control Panel | *Windows Run dialog box (after typing inetcpl.cpl, and pressing Enter)* | Internet Options menu item in Microsoft Edge Tools menu

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tab of the Windows Internet Properties applet provides an option for deleting temporary Internet files, cookies, web browsing and download history, saved passwords, and data typed into web forms?

*General* | Security | Privacy | Content | Connections | Programs | Advanced

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The Security tab of the Internet Properties applet in MS Windows allows users to configure zone-based restrictions for websites and control the type of content that can be accessed through the system's built-in web components.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows Internet Properties applet tab that provides settings for a built-in pop-up blocker?

General | Security | *Privacy* | Content | Connections | Programs | Advanced

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tab of the Internet Properties applet in Windows provides access to advanced cookie management options?

General | Security | *Privacy* | Content | Connections | Programs | Advanced

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the Windows Internet Properties applet tabs enables the management of digital certificates, the AutoComplete functionality, and RSS feeds?

General | Security | Privacy | *Content* | Connections | Programs | Advanced

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to network settings accessible through the Connections tab of the Internet Properties applet in Windows? (Select 3 answers)

Network adapter settings | Internet security zone settings | *LAN settings* | *Dial-up and VPN settings* | *Proxy server settings*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the Windows Internet Properties applet tabs provides options for managing web browser extensions and setting default applications?

General | Security | Privacy | Content | Connections | *Programs* | Advanced

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which tab of the Windows Internet Properties applet provides access to detailed settings for customizing the built-in web browser’s behavior, including options for resetting browser configurations, managing accessibility, browsing, security, and multimedia features?

General | Security | Privacy | Content | Connections | Programs | *Advanced*

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below refer to features of the Windows Devices and Printers Control Panel applet? (Select 3 answers)

*Allows users to add/remove wired and wireless devices* | Does not include troubleshooting features | *Provides a simplified view of all connected devices* | Allows users to restore a device driver to the previously installed version | Provides a detailed view of all connected devices | *Allows users to troubleshoot a device that is not working properly*

[MULTISELECT] The Programs and Features Control Panel applet in Windows enables: (Select all that apply)

*Repairing a malfunctioning program* | *Accessing an option for enabling or disabling Windows features* | Creating or deleting system restore points | *Accessing an option to view installed updates* | *Uninstalling applications*

[MULTISELECT] The Network and Sharing Center Control Panel applet in Windows allows users to: (Select 3 answers)

Configure firewall settings | *View active networks* | *Set up a new connection or network* | Configure proxy server settings | *Troubleshoot network problems*

[MULTISELECT] The Network and Sharing Center Control Panel applet in Windows provides access to: (Select 3 answers)

*Network adapter settings* | *Advanced sharing settings* | Internet security zone settings | Physical location settings | *Media streaming options*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In newer versions of Microsoft Windows, the classic System applet in Control Panel has been deprecated and now redirects to the About page within the System section of the Settings app. The About page displays detailed hardware and system information, including CPU model and speed, installed and usable RAM, as well as the Windows edition and version. It also offers quick access to common system utilities such as Device Manager and System Properties. In premium editions of Windows 10 and 11, this page additionally includes links to BitLocker and Remote Desktop.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] In Windows 10 and 11, the About page within the System section of Windows Settings can be accessed through the following paths: (Select all that apply)

*Windows Control Panel (icon view) > System* | *Windows Start > System (via right-click on the Start button)* | *Windows Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > System* | *Windows Start > Settings > System > About page* | Windows Control Panel > Programs and Features > System

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following Control Panel applets in Windows 10 and Windows 11 provides access to firewall settings?

Network and Sharing Center | Windows Firewall | Security and Maintenance | *Windows Defender Firewall*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Windows 10 and Windows 11, the Control Panel applet providing access to Microsoft Outlook configuration options is called:

*Mail* | Programs and Features | User Accounts | Administrative Tools

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the answers listed below refers to an audio configuration Control Panel applet in Windows 10 and Windows 11?

*Sound* | Device Manager | Sounds and Audio Devices | Computer Management

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which applet in the Windows Control Panel enables the modification of local user account settings?

*User Accounts* | Local Users and Groups | Security and Maintenance | User Account Control

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which Windows Control Panel applet allows users to manage hardware and driver settings?

Devices and Printers | Computer Management | *Device Manager* | Administrative Tools

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows Control Panel applet designed to improve file search performance is known as:

Storage Spaces | Disk Clean-up | Sync Center | *Indexing Options*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Windows Administrative Tools (renamed to Windows Tools in Windows 11) is a folder within the Control Panel that serves as a centralized collection of shortcuts to various system utilities and management consoles primarily designed for advanced configuration, monitoring, troubleshooting, and maintenance tasks on a Windows computer.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which path in the Windows 10 and Windows 11 Control Panel provides access to a configuration setting that enables displaying hidden files, folders, and drives?

Folder Options applet > General tab > Show hidden files, folders, and drives | *File Explorer Options applet > View tab > Advanced settings: > Show hidden files, folders, and drives* | Folder Options applet > General tab > Advanced settings: > Show hidden files, folders, and drives | File Explorer Options applet > Advanced settings: > Show hidden files, folders, and drives

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following actions provides access to the Windows 10 and Windows 11 File Explorer setting that toggles the visibility of files and folders marked by default as hidden?

*Windows logo key + E > View > Hidden items* | Windows logo key + F > File > Change folder and search options > Hidden items | Windows logo key + E > View > Advanced settings > Hidden items | Windows logo key + F > File > Show hidden files and folders

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which sequence of steps in Windows 10 and Windows 11 Control Panel provides access to a configuration setting that enables showing or hiding extensions for known file types?

Folder Options applet > View tab > Hide extensions for known file types | *File Explorer Options applet > View tab > Advanced settings: > Hide extensions for known file types* | Folder Options applet > General tab > Hide extensions for known file types | File Explorer Options applet > Advanced settings tab > Hide extensions for known file types

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The File Explorer setting that enables showing or hiding extensions for known file types in Windows 10 and 11 can be accessed via:

*Windows logo key + E > View > File name extensions* | Windows logo key + F > File > Change folder and search options > File name extensions | Windows logo key + E > View > Options > Advanced settings > File name extensions | Windows logo key + F > File > Settings > File name extensions

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the settings listed below is not part of the General tab of the File Explorer Options Control Panel applet in Windows 10 and Windows 11?

Selection of the default starting folder after launching File Explorer | *Visibility of hidden files, folders, and drives* | Folder browsing options (opening each folder in the same window or in its own window) | Opening items (single-click vs. double-click to open an item) | File Explorer browsing history options (Privacy section)

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In Windows 10 and Windows 11, the File Explorer View menu (accessed via Windows logo key + E > View) enables quick visual and layout changes for the current folder, while the File Explorer Options View tab (accessed via Control Panel > File Explorer Options > View) provides access to a system-wide, persistent configuration interface for File Explorer behavior.

*True* | False

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following answers refer to hibernation mode in Windows? (Select 3 answers)

*Saves the system state (e.g., all open/unsaved files and running applications) to a storage drive* | *Resumes full system operation more slowly than it does when waking from sleep mode* | *Turns the computer off after saving the system state to disk* | Requires a small amount of power to maintain system memory | Keeps system state (e.g., all open/unsaved files and running applications) in RAM | Resumes full system operation faster than when waking from sleep mode

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows power plan is a collection of hardware and system settings that determine how the computer uses power. In Windows Control Panel, the applet providing access to these settings is called:

Hardware and Sound | Computer Management | *Power Options* | System Properties

[MULTISELECT] Which of the statements listed below describe the behavior of sleep mode in Windows? (Select 3 answers)

*Requires a small amount of power to maintain system memory* | Saves the system state (e.g., all open/unsaved files and running applications) to a storage drive | Turns the computer off after saving the system state to disk | *Resumes full system operation faster than it does when recovering from hibernation mode* | *Keeps the system state (e.g., all open/unsaved files and running applications) in RAM* | Resumes full system operation more slowly than when recovering from hibernation mode

[MULTISELECT] On Windows-based laptops, the Microsoft operating system includes an additional power configuration setting that lets users choose what happens when the laptop lid is closed (e.g., Do Nothing, Sleep, Hibernate, or Shutdown). This setting can be accessed via the following steps: (Select all that apply)

*Windows Control Panel (category view) > Hardware and Sound > Power Options > Choose what closing the lid does* | *Windows Start > Settings > System > Power & sleep > Additional power settings > Choose what closing the lid does* | *Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Power Options > Choose what closing the lid does* | Windows Start > Settings > Devices > Power & sleep > Additional power settings > Choose what closing the lid does

[MULTISELECT] The fast startup feature in Windows 10 and 11 puts the computer into a hibernation-like state, allowing the system to resume operation more quickly when powered on. Which of the actions listed below provide(s) access to this setting? (Select all that apply)

*Windows Control Panel (category view) > Hardware and Sound > Power Options > Choose what the power buttons do > Change settings that are currently unavailable > Turn on fast startup* | Windows Start > Settings > Devices > Power & sleep > Additional power settings > Choose what the power buttons do > Change settings that are currently unavailable > Turn on fast startup | *Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Power Options > Choose what the power buttons do > Change settings that are currently unavailable > Turn on fast startup* | *Windows Start > Settings > System > Power & sleep > Additional power settings > Choose what the power buttons do > Change settings that are currently unavailable > Turn on fast startup*

[MULTISELECT] USB selective suspend is a power-saving feature in Windows that allows the system to temporarily disable an individual USB port when the connected device is not in use. The USB selective suspend setting can be accessed via: (Select all that apply)

*Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Power Options > Change plan settings > Change advanced power settings > USB settings > USB selective suspend setting* | *Windows Start > Settings > System > Power & sleep > Additional power settings > Change plan settings > Change advanced power settings > USB settings > USB selective suspend setting* | *Windows Control Panel (category view) > Hardware and Sound > Power Options > Change plan settings > Change advanced power settings > USB settings > USB selective suspend setting* | Windows Start > Settings > Devices > Power & sleep > Additional power settings > Change plan settings > Change advanced power settings > USB settings > USB selective suspend setting

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following sections of the Settings app in Windows 10 includes configuration options aimed at users with disabilities?

Accessibility | Ease of Access Center | User Accounts | *Ease of Access*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which section of the Windows Settings app enables configuration of date, time, region, language, and speech recognition settings?

System | Date and Time | Clock and Region | *Time & Language*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the sections listed below provides access to backup, recovery, and OS upgrade options within the Windows 10 Settings app?

Windows Update | System | *Update & Security* | Backup and Restore

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the Windows Settings app, which section hosts desktop customization settings?

*Personalization* | System | Appearance and Personalization | Programs and Features

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which section of the Windows Settings app includes options to modify installed programs?

System | *Apps* | Privacy | Storage

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which section of the Settings app in Windows 10 allows users to modify permissions for the operating system and applications?

Update & Security | *Privacy* | Apps | Privacy & security

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the Windows Settings app, which section provides access to settings for display, sound, notifications, power management, and storage?

Devices | *System* | Hardware and Sound | Device Manager

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which section of the Settings app in Windows 10 includes options for managing Bluetooth devices, printers, and other connected hardware?

Device Manager | *Devices* | Bluetooth & devices | Devices and Printers

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which section of the Windows Settings app provides access to network configuration options?

*Network & Internet* | Internet Options | Network and Sharing Center | Network Connections

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following enables access to gaming options in the Windows Settings app?

Apps | System | Programs and Features | *Gaming*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which section of the Settings app in Windows 10 and Windows 11 allows users to manage sign-in options and connected account settings, including email?

Accessibility | Network & internet | *Accounts* | Privacy & security

[MULTISELECT] Which of the answers listed below best describe how resource sharing is managed in a Windows domain environment? (Select 3 answers)

*Centralized access control* | Local user-based access control | *Active Directory integration* | Manual configuration per device | *Scalable across many users/devices* | Limited to small networks

[MULTISELECT] Which of the following statements are true regarding resource sharing in Windows workgroups? (Select 3 answers)

*Limited to small networks* | Scalable across many users/devices | *Manual configuration per device* | Active Directory integration | *Local user-based access control* | Centralized access control

[MULTISELECT] Which navigation paths in Windows Control Panel provide access to resource sharing options? (Select 2 answers)

Network and Internet (in category view) > Sharing options | Internet Options (in icon view) > Connections > LAN settings | *Network and Internet (in category view) > Network and Sharing Center > Change advanced sharing settings* | Devices and Printers (in icon view) > Manage network devices > Sharing options | *Network and Sharing Center (in icon view) > Change advanced sharing settings*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The resource sharing options in the Windows 11 Settings app can be accessed via:

Update & Security > Windows Security > Firewall & network protection > Advanced settings | Network & Internet > Status > Network and Sharing Center > Change advanced sharing settings | Devices > Printers & scanners > Manage (after selecting a device) | *Network & internet > Advanced network settings > Advanced sharing settings*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to ensure that a Windows system can both find and be found by other devices on a trusted LAN. Which feature of the advanced sharing settings must be turned on to enable this functionality?

Remote access | SSID broadcast | *Network discovery* | Guest account

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user reports that others can see their Windows PC on the network, but cannot access the shared printer attached to it. In advanced sharing settings, which feature is most likely disabled?

Network discovery | *File and printer sharing* | Remote access | Network profile type

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A Windows-based system configured with correct network and sharing settings still prompts remote users for credentials. To allow unauthenticated access in a trusted environment, which feature in the advanced sharing settings should be turned off?

Administrative access | NTFS permissions | *Password-protected sharing* | Inbound firewall rules

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which character, when appended to the end of the name of a network share in Windows, indicates that the network share is intended for administrative access and not visible to regular users?

# | *$* | ? | &

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the options listed below provides access to shared folders in a Windows environment?

Control Panel > Administrative Tools (Windows 10) > Computer Management > System Tools > Shared Folders > Shares | Windows command-line interface > Run the net share command | Control Panel > Windows Tools (Windows 11) > Computer Management > System Tools > Shared Folders > Shares | *All of the above*

[MULTISELECT] In the Windows Control Panel, local printer sharing can be enabled via: (Select all that apply)

*Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Devices and Printers > right-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab* | *Windows Control Panel (category view) > Hardware and Sound > Devices and Printers > right-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab* | Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Devices and Printers > right-click on a selected printer > Properties > Sharing tab | *Windows Control Panel (category view) > View devices and printers (under Hardware and Sound) > right-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab*

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which path in the Windows 10 Settings app provides access to printer sharing configuration options?

*Devices > Printers & scanners > left-click on a selected printer > Manage > Printer properties > Sharing tab* | Hardware and Sound > Devices and Printers > right-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab | Devices and Printers > right-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab | Bluetooth & devices > Printers & scanners > left-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In the Windows 11 Settings app, printer sharing options can be accessed via:

Devices and Printers > right-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab | Hardware and Sound > Devices and Printers > right-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab | *Bluetooth & devices > Printers & scanners > left-click on a selected printer > Printer properties > Sharing tab* | Devices > Printers & scanners > left-click on a selected printer > Manage > Printer properties > Sharing tab

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following protocols is commonly used by Windows servers to share files, printers, and other resources over a network?

FTP | *SMB* | NetBIOS | LDAP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A user needs to access a folder named Projects located on a shared Windows file server FS1. Which UNC path would a technician use to connect to this resource?

//FS1\Projects | :\FS1\Projects | *\\FS1\Projects* | FS1:\\Projects

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] The primary purpose of mapping a network drive in Windows is to assign a drive letter locally to a shared folder stored on a remote computer or server, making the resource appear as part of the local file system. This enables faster navigation, provides a consistent access point through a fixed drive letter, allows applications that require a local path to work seamlessly, and includes an option to automatically reconnect the drive at user sign-in to maintain ongoing access.

*True* | False

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] What is the correct syntax for mapping a network drive using the Windows command-line interpreter?

net map Z: \\Server\Share | map drive Z: \\Server\Share | *net use Z: \\Server\Share* | drive map Z: \\Server\Share

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A technician needs to map a network drive for a user. The shared folder is located at \\Server1\Documents, and the user wants it mapped to the drive letter X. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

"*Open File Explorer > right-click ""This PC"" > select ""Map network drive"" > choose X from the dropdown list, and enter \\Server1\Documents* | Launch Windows command-line interpreter > type ""map drive X: \\Server1\Documents"" (without double quotes), and press Enter | Open File Explorer > right-click on the shared folder > select ""Pin to Quick access"" > choose X from the dropdown list, and enter \\Server1\Documents | Launch Windows command-line interpreter > type ""net map X: \\Server1\Documents"" (without double quotes), and press Enter"

[MULTISELECT] Which of the steps listed below provide(s) access to an interface that allows users to modify how apps communicate through Windows Defender Firewall? (Select all that apply)

*Windows Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > Allow an app through Windows Firewall (under Windows Defender Firewall)* | *Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Network and Sharing Center > Windows Defender Firewall (bottom left pane) > Allow an app or feature through Windows Defender Firewall* | Windows Control Panel (category view) > Network and Internet > Windows Defender Firewall > Allow an app or feature through Windows Defender Firewall | *Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Windows Defender Firewall > Allow an app or feature through Windows Defender Firewall*

[MULTISELECT] A systems administrator is tasked with securing a company laptop used by a traveling sales executive. The laptop requires advanced inbound, outbound, and encrypted connection rules, which can be managed through Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security. Which navigation path in Windows can the administrator use to access this tool? (Select 2 answers)

Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Internet Options > Security tab > Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security | *Windows Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > Windows Defender Firewall > Advanced settings* | *Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Windows Defender Firewall > Advanced settings* | Windows Control Panel (category view) > System and Security > Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security | Windows Control Panel (icon view) > Security and Maintenance > Windows Defender Firewall with Advanced Security

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] A logical numeric identifier assigned to every device on a TCP/IP network is known as:

MAC address | SSID | *IP address* | Host ID

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which protocol is primarily responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses?

*DNS* | DHCP | FTP | HTTP

[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] Which of the following determines the network segment an IP address belongs to?

IP address class | Default gateway | MAC address | *Subnet mask*

"[MULTIPLE_CHOICE] In a network using subnets, the term ""Default gateway"" refers to a network device (router) that enables exchange of data between hosts residing in different subnets."

*True* | False